SBI Solved Probationary Officer Exam Question Papers - 07-Mar-2010

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Probationary Officers Exam
Held on: 07-03-2010

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Reasoning (High Level)

1. If 'R' denotes '−', 'Q' denotes '×', 'W' denotes '÷' and 'A' denotes '+', then ---
42 W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 = ?
1) −22 2) −168 3) 22 4) 28
5) None of these

2. Mohan walked 30 meters towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres.
He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and
walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
1) 95 metres 2) 50 metres 3) 70 metres
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

3. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
CEA IKG OQM ?
1) STW 2) WUS 3) SWU
4) UWS 5) None of these

4. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain
unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the
number?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three

5. What should come next in the following letter series?
P Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A B C D E P Q R S A B C D P Q
1) R 2) T 3) A
4) B 5) None of these

6. In a certain code language, 'how can you go' is written as 'ja da ka pa', 'can you
come here' is writen as 'na ka sa ja' and 'come and go' is written as 'ra pa sa'.
How is 'here' written in that code language?
1) ja 2) na 3) pa 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which
has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three

8. In a certain code DOWN is written as '5@9#' and NAME is written as '#6%3'.
How is MODE written in that code?
1) %653 2) %@63 3) %5@3
4) %@53 5) None of these

9. How many meaningful English words can be formed with letters LGEU using
each letter only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three

10. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL
written in that code?
1) VPTKKTE 2) VPTKETK 3) TPVKKTE
4) TNRKMVG 5) None of these



Q. 11-15. In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statement
to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
11. Statements: Some trains are cars. All cars are branches. All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions: I. Some dresses are cars
II. Some nets are trains
III. Some branches are trains
IV. Some dresses are trains
1) Only I, III follow 2) Only II, III follow
3) Only I, IV follow 4) Only II, III, IV follow
5) None of these

12. Statements: Some pencils are kites. Some kites are desks. All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions: I. Some mountains are pencils
II. Some jungles are pencils
III. Some mountains are desks
IV. Some jungles are kites
1) Only I, III follow 2) Only I, II, III follow
3) Only III, IV follow 4) Only II, III, IV follow
5) None of these

13. Statements: All papers are clips. Some clips are boards. Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions: I. Some roads are boards
II. Some lanes are clips
III. Some boards are papers
IV. Some roads are clips
1) Only I, II follow 2) Only I, III follow
3) Only I, II, III follow 4) Only II, III, IV follow
5) None of these

14. Statements: All pens are clocks. Some clocks are tyres. Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions: I. Some buses are tyres
II. Some wheels are clocks
III. Some wheels are pens
IV. Some buses are clocks
1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows 5) Only IV follows

15. Statements: All stones are hammers. No hammer is ring. Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions: I. Some windows are stones
II. Some windows are rings
III. No window is stone
IV. Some rings are stones
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows
4) Only either I or III follows 5) Only either I or III and II follow

SBI Solved PO Question Papers - 28-Apr-2013

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SBI (PO) Exam
Held on 28-04-2013
(Based on memory)

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Test - I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:

1. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression
R > O = A > S < T is definitely true?
1) O > T 2) S < R 3) T > A
4) S = O 5) T < R

2. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in
the given expression in order to make the expressions P > A as well as T ≤ L
definitely true?
P > L ? A≥ N = T
1) ≤ 2) > 3) <
4) ≥ 5) Either ≤ or <

3. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively
(in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given
expression in such a manner that makes the expressions B > N as well as D ≤ L
definitely true?
B _ L _ O _ N _ D
1) =, =, ≥, ≥ 2) >, ≥, =, > 3) >, <, =, ≤
4) >, =, =, ≥ 5) >, =, ≥, >

4. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the
same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such
a manner that makes the expression A < P definitely false?
___ ≤ ___ < ___ > ___
1) L, N, P, A 2) L, A, P, N 3) A, L, P, N
4) N, A, P, L 5) P, N, A, L

5. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces
respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given
expression in such a manner that makes the expression F > N and U > D
definitely false?
F __ O __ U __ N __ D
1) <, <, >, = 2) <, =, =, > 3) <, =, =, <
4) ≥, =, =, ≥ 5) >, >, =, <

Directions (Q. 6 - 10): Study the following information and answer the following questions:
A, B, C, D, E, G, and I are seven friends who study in three different standards,
namely 5th, 6th, and 7th, such that not less than two friends study in the same standard.
Each friend has a different favourite subject, namely History, Civics, English, Marathi,
Hindi, Maths and Economics also but not necessarily in the same order.
A likes Maths and studies in the 5th standard with only one other friend who
likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the friends who study with I like
languages (here languages include only Hindi, Marathi and English). D studies in the
6th standard with only one person and does not like Civics. E studies with only one
friend. The one who likes History does not study in the 5th or 6th standard. E does not
like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics.

6. Which combination represents E's favourite subject and the standard in which
he studies?
1) Civics and 7th 2) Economics and 5th 3) Civics and 6th
4) History and 7th 5) Economics and 7th

7. Which of the following is I's favourite subject?
1) History 2) Civics 3) Marathi
4) Either English or Marathi 5) Either English or Hindi

8. Who among the following studies in the 7th standard?
1) G 2) C 3) E
4) D 5) Either D or B

9. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?
1) I and Hindi 2) G and English 3) C and Marathi
4) B and Hindi 5) E and Economics

10. Which of the following subjects does G like?
1) Either Maths or Marathi 2) Either Hindi or English
3) Either Hindi or Civics 4) Either Hindi or Marathi
5) Either Civics or Economics



Directions (Q. 11 - 15): Study the information and answer the following questions.
In a certain code language 'economics is not money' is written as 'ka la ho ga',
'demand and supply economics' is written as 'mo ta pa ka', 'money makes only part' is
written as 'zi la ne ki' and 'demand makes supply economics' is written as 'zi mo ka ta'.

11. What is the code for 'money' in the given code language?
1) ga 2) mo 3) pa
4) ta 5) la

12. What is the code for 'supply' in the given code language?
1) Only ta 2) Only mo 3) Either pa or mo
4) Only pa 5) Either mo or ta

13. What may be the possible code for 'demand only more' in the given code language?
1) xi ne mo 2) mo zi ne 3) ki ne mo
4) mo zi ki 5) xi ka ta

14. What may be the possible code for 'work and money' in the given code language?
1) pa ga la 2) pa la tu 3) mo la pa
4) tu la ga 5) pa la ne

15. What is the code for 'makes' in the given code language?
1) mo 2) pa 3) ne
4) zi 5) ho

Directions (Q. 16 - 20): Study the given information and answer the following questions:
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words
and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input: 40 made butter 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now 19

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SBI and SBI Rural Business PO Exam Solved Question Paper

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SBI & SBI RURAL BUSINESS PO EXAM
Held On: 18-04-2010

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REASONING
1. In a certain code language 'how many goals scored' is written as '5 3 9 7', 'many
more matches' is written as '9 8 2' and 'he scored five' is written as '1 6 3'. How
is 'goals' written in that code language?
1) 5 2) 7 3) 5 or 7
4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these

2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER
written in that code?
1) RMNBSFEJ 2) BNMRSFEJ 3) RMNBJEFS
4) TOPDQDCH 5) None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using
each letter only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight. D is heavier than only
A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest?
1) B 2) E 3) C
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

5. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and
each even digit is substitued by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained
are rearranged in ascending order. which of the following will be the third digit
from the left end after the rearrangement?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5
4) 6 5) None of these

6. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is before twenty third April
but after nineteenth April. whereas his sister correctly remembers that their
mother's birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April
is definitely their mother's birthday?
1) Twentieth 2) Twenty-first 3) Twentieth or twenty-first
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

7. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 metres he took a right
turn and walked 30 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 100 metres. He
again took a right turn and walked 30 metres and stopped. How far and in which
direction was he from the starting point?
1) 50 metres South 2) 150 metres North 3) 180 metres East
4) 50 metres North 5) None of these

8. If '÷' means '+'; '-' means '×'; '×' means '÷' and '+' means '-'; then
15 - 8 × 6 ÷ 12 + 4 = ?
1) 20 2) 28 3) 8 47
4) 2 2 5) None of these 3

9. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H
is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F?
1) East 2) South-East 3) North-East

4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which
has as marry letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three



Directions (11 - 15): In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by four conclusions numbered. I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements: All cups are bottles.
Some bottles are jugs.
No Jug is plate.
Some plates are tables.
Conclusions: I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some Jugs are cups.
1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows
4) Only IV follows 5) Only either I or III follows

12. Statements: Some chairs are handles.
All handles are pots.
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.
Conclusions: I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is handle.
IV. Some mats are handles.
1) Only I, II and IV follow 2) Only II, III and IV follow
3) Only either I or III and II follow 4) Only either I or III and IV follow
5) Only either I or III and II and IV follow

13. Statements: All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.
Conclusions: I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.
1) Only I and III follow 2) Only I, II and III follow
3) Only II, III and IV follow 4) All I, II, III and IV follow
5) None of these

14. Statements: Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.
Conclusions: I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.
1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I and III follow
3) Only III and IV follow 4) Only II, III and IV follow
5) None of these

15. Statements: Some stickes are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.
Conclusions:
I. Some shirts are sticks.
II. Some shirts are flowers.
III. Some flowers are sticks.
IV. Some dresses are sticks.
1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows 5) Only IV follows

Directions (16 - 20): Study the following Information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in
three departments Viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than
three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from
foot - ball, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and
table tennis not necessarily in the same order.
D works in administration and does not like either footbal or cricket. F works in
personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same
department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in marketing. G does not work in
administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work
in administration likes football. The one who likes volleyball works in personnel.
None of those who work in administration likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H
does not like cricket.

16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?
1) EGH 2) AF 3) BCD
4) BGD 5) Data inadequate
17. In which department does E work?
1) Personnel 2) Marketing 3) Administration
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam 14-Mar-2010 Solved Question Paper

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ALLAHABAD BANK CLERK EAXM

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REASONING ABILITY

1. In row of forty children, R is eleven h from the right end and there are fifteen children between R and M. What Is M's position from the left end of the row ?
(1) Fourteenth
(2) Fifteenth
(3) Thirteenth
(4) Cannot be determined
i (5) None of these

2. In a certain code language 'how many are there' is written as 'ka na ta da' and 'many are welcome here' is written as 'na pi ni ka'. How is 'how' written in that code language ?
(1) ta (2) da
(3)taorda
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these r

3. If the positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 83591427 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on then which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3). 9 (4)2
(5) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ADJUSTING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three

5. How many meaningful English words, can be formed with the letters LBAE using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three

6. In a certain code BUILDER is written as JVCKSFE. How is SEALING written in that code ?
(1) BTFKHOJ
(2) JOHKBFT
(3) TFBKHOJ
(4) BFTKJOH
(5) None of these

7. If 'R' denotes V; T denotes '-'; "M", denotes '+' and W denotes V,then — 27 T 15 R 3 W 4 M 6 = ?
(1) 7 (2) 13
(3) -23 (4) 1
(5) None of these

8. In a certain code WAVE is written as '5%3*' and WINS is written as '59@©'. How is SANE written in that code ?
(1) ©9@* (2) •%©©
(3) ©©%• (4) ©%©•
(5) None of these

9. Which of the following is the middle digit of the third highest among the five three-digit numbers given below ?.
368 931 472 715 647
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 1
(5) 4

10. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is shorter than only T and S is shorter than P and R. Who among them is the shortest ?
(1) R
(2)S
(3)P
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these



Directions (11-15) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
B M % R 3 J @ K © D F 6 9 W 4 • N E P 2 $ A Y 5 I Q Z # 7 U G

11. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) J (2) Q
(3) W . (4) E
(5) None of these

12. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
• (1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three

13. If all the symbols and all the |' vowels are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be twelfth from the , right end ?
(1) 9 (2) 6
(3) P (4) Y
(5) None of these

14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three

15. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the fol- ; lowing series based on the above , arrangement ?
MRJ ©F9 *E2 ?
(1) Y5I (2) YIQ
(3) A5Q (4) YIZ
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20) : In each of, the questions below are given foui*- statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be al variance from commonly known facts. . Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions  logically follows from the given state- : ments disregarding commonly known . facts.
and II are given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer
the question.
Read both the statements and -
Give answer (1) if the data in
Statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in
Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in
Statement I alone or in Statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in
both the Statements I and II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in
both the Statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.

17. What does 'ka' mean in a codelanguage ?
I. 'sa ka na' means 'she may
work' in that code language.
II. 'ha ka ta' means 'work is worship' in that code language.

18. What is Sonal's rank from the top in a group of 10 students ?
I. Meenu's rank is three ranks above Sonal.
II. Sita is second from the\bottom
and is three ranks below Sonal.

19. On which day of the month is definitely Dheeraj's birthday ?
I. Dheeraj's brother correctly remembers
that Dheeraj's birthday
is after 15th but before
19th of the month.
II. Dheeraj's friend correctly remembers
that Dheeraj's birthday
is after 17th but before
21 st of the month.
20. How far is A from the starting
point ?
I. A drives 10 km. towards East,
then takes a right turn and
drives another 10 km. He
again drives 5 km. towards left
and again drives 15 km. towards
left. Finally, he moves
15 km. towards left and stops.
II. A drives 20 km. towards East,
then takes a left turn and
drives another 20 km. He
again drives 10 km. towards
right and again drives 25 km.
towards right. Finally, he
moves 30 km. towards right
and stops.
Directions (21 - 23): Following
questions are based on the five three
digit numbers given below:
756 421 843 615 597
21. What will be the product of the
first and the third digits of the
third highest number ?
0)40 (2)30
(3) 35 (4) 24
(5) 32
22. If the positions of the first and
the third digits of each of the
numbers are interchanged,
which of the following will be the
sum of the first and the second
digits of the lowest number ?
(1)3 (2)7
(3)6 (4)8
(5)2
23. If '3' is subtracted from the first
digit in each number and T is
added to the third digit in each
number and then if the positions
of the first and second digits in
each number are interchanged,
then which of the following numbers
will be the second lowest ?
(1)615 (2)421
(3) 756 (4) 597
(5) 843

Directions (24- 29) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV, You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

24. Statements:
All silver are metals.
All metals are steel.
Some steel are stones.
All stones are stands.
Conclusions:
I. Some stands are metals.
II. Some stones are silver.
III. Some stands are steel.
IV. Some stones are steel.
(1) Only III and IV follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of these

25. Statements:
All chairs are tables.
All tables are songs.
Some songs are rhythms.
Some rhythms are pillows.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are chairs.
II. All tables are rhythms.
III. All chairs are songs.
IV. Some pillows are songs.
(1) Only I and III follow
(2) Only I and IV follow
(3) Only I follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of these

26. - Statements:
Some mobiles are pens.
Some pens are covers.
Some covers are plates.
All plates are papers.
Conclusions:
I. All mobiles are covers.
II. Some pens are papers.
III. All plates are pens.
IV. Some papers are mobiles.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only 1 and IV follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None follows

27. Statements:
All shoes are tables.
Some tables are lanes.
All caps are lanes.
Some lanes are row.

Conclusions:
I. Some tables are rows.
II. Some tables are shoes.
III. Some rows are caps.
IV. Some lanes are shoes.

(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or IV follows
(5) None of these

28. Statements:
All brands are bottles.
All bottles are machines.
All machines are files.
All files.are roots.

Bank of Maharashtra Clerk Exam Solved Question Paper

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Bank of Maharashtra Clerk exam solved paper

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1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes
will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32,
256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an
average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover
the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examinatio n has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured
only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge
of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will
be .
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys
take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050



19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their
feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five
minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more
children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the
percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is
5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by
1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the
maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) ?5r (d) ?3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) ?2 (d) ?3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students
failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting
point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and
subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31

Answers:-
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D
44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D
38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

Canara bank Clerk Exam 18-Jul-2010 Solved Question Paper

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CANARA BANK CLERK EXAM - 18 - 07 - 2010

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REASONING
1. In a certain code KINETIC is written as TICDKIN. How is MACHINE written in that code ?
(1) ENIGMAC (2) INEGMAC
(3) INEGCAM (4) ENIGCAM
(5) INEGMCA

2. If 'P' means 'x', Q' means '+', 'R' means'-' and 'S' means'+' then— 46 R.12 P 3 S 1 8 Q 9 = ?
(1) 13.3 (2) 14
(3) 36.5 (4) 16
(5) 12

3. If each vowel of the word DEFAULTS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical
series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series,
how many alphabets will appear twice in the new formation ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) Four

4. 'VT is related to 'QO' in the same way as 'MK' is related to ' '
(1) HF (2) IG
(3) RP (4) JG
(5) QO

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RATIONS, each of which has as many letters
between thcm in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between
them in the Enlgish alphabetical series ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three

6. The positions of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 35928164 are rearranged in the ascending order from left to right ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Thfee
(5) More than three

7. There are four bags T, S, V and
W, each having diffcrent weight.
Bag T is lighter only than S. V is
lighter than W and W is lighter
thanT. Which of the four bags is
the lightest ?
(1) S (2) W
(3) T (4) V
(5) Cannot be determined

8. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the flrst,
flfth, seventh and the eleventh letters of the word 'REC1PROCATE'
which would be the second letter of the word from the left ? If more than one such word
can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.
(1) R (2) P
(3) E (4) X
(5) Z





9. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters
EAP, using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) Four

10. Meghna drives 10 km. towards South, takes a right turn and drives 6 km. She then takes another
right turn, drives 10 km. and stops. How far is she from the starting point ?
(1) 16 km. (2) 6 km.
(3) 4 km. (4)

IBPS Common Written Exam Clerk November 2011 Solved Question Paper

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IBPS Common Written Exam Clerk November 2011 Solved Question Paper, Sitting -1

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Test -1: Reasoning Ability

1. The positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits
within the number are written in ascending order from left to right?
l)One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

2. In a certain code, 'BUILD'is written as '5#31@' and 'LIKES' is written as '13©*8'. How is
'SKID' written in that code?
1)8©*@ 2)8@3© 3) 8©3@ 4) 83©@ 5) None of these

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'DAREDEVIL' each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (In both forward
and backward directions)
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the
seventh and the eighth letter of the word STEADFAST, which of the following will be the
second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer and if more
than one such word can be formed, give 'Y' as the answer.
1)E 2) A 3)T 4)X 5)Y

5. In a certain code, 'TASK' is written as 'BUJR' and 'BIND' is written as 'JCCM'. How is 'SUIT'
written in that code?
1) VTSH 2)VSTH 3)TRUJ 4)TRJU 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following questions, the symbols S, *, $, @ and © are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q' means 'Pis neither smaller nor greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is either smaller or equal to Q'.
'P * Q' means 'P is smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller nor equal to Q'.

Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

6. Statements: W$F, F δ R, R*M
Conclusions: I.R *W II.R$W

7. Statements: V δ T, T @ N, N$J
Conclusions: I.J*T II.N*V

8. Statements: K©R, R8M, M*F
Conclusions: I. F @ R II. K * M

9. Statements: B@J, J * H , H © N
Conclusions: I. N @ J II.N @ B

10. Statements: T*K, K©M, M8D
Conclusions: I.D K II.M@T





Directions (Q.11-15): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully
and answer the questions given below:

R4$ME7T#A2J@UK9PI%18QW35Z5*N 6F©VG

11. Which of the following should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series
based on the elements in the above arrangement?
M$7 A# J KUP ?
1)1%W 2 ) 1IQ 3 ) 1IW 4) 1 %Q 5) None of these

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four

13. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a letter?
l)None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

14. If the positions of twenty five elements from the right end are reversed, which of the
following will be the sixteenth element from the left end?
1)Z 2)P 3) W 4) Q 5) None of these

15. Which of the following is eighth to the left of the twenty- third clement from the left end of
the above arrangement?
1)9 2)1 3)$ 4)© 5) None of these

Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
P, Q, A, B, D, R and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. R is not second to the
left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B. A is third to the right of F. B is second to the
left of F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of either B or F.

16. Who is second to the right of P?
1)R 2)Q 3)D 4) A 5) Data inadequate

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17. Who is on the immediate left of F?
1)R 2)P 3)D 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

18. Who is on the immediate right of D?
1) Q 2) A 3) F 4)P 5) None of these

19. What is D's position with respect to B? -
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Second to the left
4) Fourth to the right 5) Third to the right
20. Who is on the immediate right of Q?
1)D 2)R 3) A 4)B 5) None of these
Directions(Q.21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
21. Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each of a different age, is definitely the youngest?
I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.
22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?
I. Q walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a
left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.
II. Q walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres. Then he took
a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.
23. How is 'always' written in a code language?
I. 'rain is always good' is written as '5397' in that code language.
II. 'he is always there' is written as '3 6 8 5' in that code language.
24. How is M related to D?
I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D's brother is the son of M's wife.
25. On which date of April is definitely Pravin's mother's birthday?
I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is after fourteenth but before
nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin's sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is after sixteenth but
before twenty-first of April.
Directions (Q.26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation. The
candidate must
1) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 1.12.2011.
2) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks.
3) have completed postgraduate degree/diploma in Management with specialisation in
Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
4) have post-qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing
Manager in an organisation.
In the case of a candidate who fulfils all the conditions except
a) (ii) above, but has scored at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in postgraduate
degree/diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management, his/her
case is to be referred to the Head-Marketing.
b) (i) above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of eight years as
Assistant Marketing Manager, his/her case is to be referred to the Managing Director.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the
following courses of action based on the conditions and sub-conditions given above and the
information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your
answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each
question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.12.2011. Give answer
1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
3) if the candidate is to be selected.
4) if the case is to be referred to the Head-Marketing.
5) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director. Now, read the information provided
in each question and mark your answer accordingly.
26. Megha Gosavi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing
Manager in an organisation for the past six years after completing her postgraduate degree
in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management With 70% marks. She has
scored 53% marks in B. Com.
27. Mihir Sengupta was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing
Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate
diploma in Marketing Management with 60% marks. He has scored 54% marks in
graduation.
28. Arup Pathak has scored 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant
Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his
postgraduate diploma in Management with
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specialisation in Marketing Management. He was born on 15 th February 1981.
29. Manish Agrawal was born on 2nd January 1978. He has scored 58% marks in B. Sc and 65%
marks in postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant
Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past six years after completing his
postgraduation.
Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W study in Std IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these standards.
Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and
pink, not necessarily in the same order.
Q likes yellow and does not study in Std VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Std
as T. R likes blue and studies in the same Standard as W. S studies in Std V only with the
one who likes pink. W does not study either in Std V or VI. V does not like black. W does
not like either green or white. S does not like green. T does not like pink.
31. Who likes white?
1)P 2) W 3)S 4)V 5) None of these
32. Which of the following combinations is correct?
1)P Black V 2) S-White-IV 3)Q-Red-IV 4) R Blue-IV
5) All are correct
33. What is P's favourite colour?
l)Red 2) Black 3) White 4) Either Black or White
5) None of these
34. Which of the following students study in Std IV?
1)QR 2) QW 3)QRS 4)QRW 5) None of these
35. Who likes red?
1)W 2)S 3)P 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each question below are given two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the
statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either I or II follows.
4) if neither I nor II follows.
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30. Nilima Patkar has scored 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant
Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her
postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 65% marks. She was born on 18th
August 1972.
5) if both I and II follow.
36. Statements: All cards are sheets.
All files are cards,
Conclusions: I. All cards are files.
II. All files are sheets.
37. Statements: Some questions are answers.
All questions are issues.
Conclusions: I. At least some answers are issues.
II. Some answers are definitely not questions.
38. Statements: All roads are streets.
No road is a highway.
Conclusions: I. No highway is street.
II. All streets are roads.
39. Statements: No book is a library.
Some books are diaries.
Conclusions: I. At least some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is a library.
40. Statements: No pin is a clip. All pins are fans.
Conclusions: I. All fans are pins.
II. No clip is a fan.
Directions (Q. 41-50):In each of the questions given below, which of the five answer figures
on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were
continued?
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q, 51-65): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based
on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
India's manufacturing growth fell to its lowest in more than two years in September 2011,
reinforcing fears that an extended period of high policy rates is hurting growth, according to
a closely vatched index.
The HSBC India Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI), based on a survey of over 500
companies, fell to 50.4 from 52.6 in August and 53.6 in July. It was the lowest since March
2009, when the reading was below 50, indicating contraction. September's index also
recorded the biggest one-month fall since November 2008.
The sub-index for new orders, which reflects future output, declined for the sixth successive
month, while export orders fell for a third month on the back of weakness in global
economy.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) last week indicated it was not done yet with monetary
policy tightening as inflation was still high. The bank has already raised rates 12 times since
March 2010 to tame inflation, which is at a 13-month high of 9.78%.
Economists expect the RBI to raise rates one more time but warn that targeted growth will be
hard to achieve if the slump continues. "This (fall in PMI) was driven by weaker orders, with
export orders still contracting due to the weaker global economic conditions," HSBC said in
a press release quoting its chief economist for India & ASEAN.
PMI is considered a fairly good indicator of manufacturing activity the world over, but in the
case of India, the large contribution of the unorganised sector yields a low correlation with
industrial growth.
However, the Index for Industrial Production (IIP) has been showing a weakening tend,
having slipped to a 21- month low of 3.3% in July. The core sector, which consists of eight
infrastructure industries and has a combined weight of 37.9% in the IIP, also grew at only
3.5% in August.
The PMI data is in line with the suffering manufacturing activity in India as per other
estimates. Producers are seeing that demand conditions are softening and the outlook is
uncertain, therefore they are producing less.
Employment in the manufacturing sector declined for the second consecutive month,
indicating it too was under pressure. This could be attributed to lower requirement of staff
and rise in resignations as higher wage requests go unfulfilled, the HSBC statement said.
On the inflation front, input prices rose at an 11-month low rate, but despite signs of
softening, they still remain at historically high levels.
While decelerating slightly, the readings for input and output prices suggest that inflation
pressures remain firmly in place.
Most economists feel the RBI is close to the end of its rate hike cycle. Even the weekly
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) estimates have started showing signs of softening, having
fallen more than one percentage point.
51. The PMI is based on surveys of
1) Individual Consumers 2) Companies 3) Countries
4) Economists 5) Banks
52. Which year did PMI record the biggest one-month fall since 2008?
1)2008 2)2009 3)2010
4)2011 5) None of these
53. Which of the following explains the phrase, as used in the passage, "it was not done yet"?
1) It is over now 2) There is no hope 3) There is still hope
4) Rates will be further raised 5) PMI will further fall
54. Which of the following is indicated by the sub-index for new orders?
1) Export orders 2) WPI 3) Inflation
4) Output price 5) Future output
55. How many companies are included in PMI data from India?
1) About 100 2) Less than 10 3) Between 100 to 300
4) More than 500 5) More than 10,000
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56. Which of the following is the prediction of economists about RBI's rate hike cycle, as per
the passage?
1) There will not be many rate hikes
2) The rate reduction cycle will start soon.
3) There will be many more rate hikes.
4) Not indicated in the passage.
5) None of these
57. Which of the following is not true about PMI data in India?
1) It reflects decline in manufacturing.
2) In September 2011, PMI was 50.4.
3) Reduction is export orders affected PMI.
4) Other related estimates support PMI data.
5) PMI data is reported once in 3 months.
58. PMI is used
1) Only in India
2) World over
3) Only in ASEAN countries
4) Only in developed countries
5) Only in developing countries
59. Which of the following is indicated as one of the reasons for the fall in PMI?
1) Less number of orders were placed.
2) Unorganised sector failed to give the required results.
3) Industrial unrest reduced manufacturing.
4) RBI has stopped raising the rates.
5) WPI has shown signs of softening.
60. Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
1) India's manufacturing growth was the lowest in 2010.
2) PMI is not affected by high policy rates.
3) Employment in manufacturing sector was also affected adversely.
4) The input prices were lowest in 2011 as compared to earlier years.
5) HP was 37.9% in August.
Directions (Q. 61-63): Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning to the
word printed in hold, as used in the passage.
61. yields
1) relents 2) submits 3) produces 4) reduces 5) withstands
62. tame
1) increase 2) timid 3) study 4) control 5) understand
63. still
1) silent 2) now as before 3) nevertheless 4) quiet 5) in spite of
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Directions (Q. 64-65): Choose the word(s) which is most opposite in meaning of the word
printed in bold, as used in the passage.
64. reinforcing
1) contradicting 2) wishing 3) jolting 4) forcing 5) re-inventing
65. slump
1) output 2) rise 3) slide 4) slack 5) input
Directions (Q. 66-70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold
type is given. These are numbered as 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in
bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out
the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your
answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the
context of the sentence, mark 5) ie, 'All Correct', as your answer.
66. Another advantage is that technology can be quickly
1) 2) 3)
adapted to the client's needs. All correct
4) 5)
67. It freed me to enter one of the most creatively periods of
1) 2) 3) 4)
my life. Ail correct
5)
68. About 4,500 private and 2000 government hospitols are
1) 2)
empanelled under the scheme. All correct
3) 4) 5)
69. More often then not we feel concerned with the
1) 2) 3)
development around us. All correct
4) 5)
70. Software makers in India are facing a huge presure.
1) 2) 3) 4)
All correct
5)
Directions (Q. 71-75): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each
sentence has a blank in it Five words 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) are suggested. Out of these, only
one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the
answer.
71. I. The truck stopped_____.
II. We take a _walk every day.
1) suddenly 2) long 3) short 4) distant 5) near
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72. I. I got the grains ______ in the machine.
II. I do not have any _______ for doubting him.
l) done 2) basis 3) ground 4) crushed 5) tune
73. I. We were asked to design a______ of the dam.
II. This Institute is a ________ of modern thinking.
1) picture 2) type 3) function 4) fabric 5) model
74. I. Keep a _____ grip on the railing.
II. He was ______ asleep.
1) fast 2) firm 3) deep 4) strong 5) sure
75. I. He asked me to ________ over the fence.
II. We should keep the valuables in the __________ .
1) vault 2) cross 3) safe 4) tie 5) locker
Directions (Q. 76-80): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically
meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction is required',
mark 5) as answer.
76. Most of time strangers have helped in critical situations.
1) Many a time 2) At time 3) More of time 4) At odd period
5) No correction required
77. The reality is that India needs a strong, efficient and competitive aviation sector.
1) what India needs 2) that India need 3) therefore India need
4) needs India 5) No correction required
78. I have known this industry since the last two decades.
1) since last two decade
2) ever since the last two decades
3) for the last two decades
4) from the last two decades
5) No correction required
79. Today's children have far most knowledge and far less patience compared to our
generation.
1) much most knowledge 2) far most knowledgeable
3) by far higher knowledge 4) far more knowledge
5) No correction required
80. Of late, Bonsai trees have attracted the attention of one and all.
1) some and all 2) many and all 3) everyone and all
4) none and all 5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 81-90): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number
of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark 5).
81. 1) All companies must / 2) send its annual report to / 3) its shareholders twenty-one days
/ 4) before the Annual General Body Meeting. / 5) No error
82. 1) To be an effective manager / 2) it is vital to / 3) know the goals and vision / 4) of your
organisation. / 5) No error
83. 1) His aim is / 2) provided cheap and / 3) reliable internet facilities / 4) to every village
within five years. / 5) No error
84. 1) Bank notes have / 2) many special features so / 3) that bank staff can / 4) easier
identify fake notes. / 5) No error
85. 1) According to the Census Bureau, / 2) India will have / 3) a more population / 4) than
China by 2025. / 5) No error
86. 1) The state government has / 2) issued licences to farmers / 3) allowing them to sell / 4)
its vegetables to hotels. / 5) No error
87. 1) Many people decide / 2) not to buy a car / 3) last Diwali because of / 4) the high price
of petrol last year. / 5) No error
88. 1) We plan to / 2) sell part of our / 3) business therefore we have / 4) to repay a loan. / 5)
No error
89. 1) The Reserve Bank of India is / 2) the only central bank in / 3) Asia which have / 4)
raised interest rates in September. / 5) No error
90. 1) Under this scheme / 2) insurance companies will reimburse / 3) any expenditure on
medicines / 4) if you submitting the original bills. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 91-100): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Today experts all over the world are of the opinion that agriculture will affect the future of
the world.
The world has a serious food (91) and the only way to solve (92) is if more people take up
(93). Moreover since the 1980s, technology and finance jobs (94) been the basis of America's
economy. (95), in recent times, farmers' incomes have risen (96). It has also been a long time
(97) farming was a major source of employment, but data (98) that unemployment in America is
(99) in states where farming is the (100) occupation.
As the demand for food is rising - what the world needs today is more fanners.
91. 1) trouble 2) problem 3) doubt
4) discussion 5) production
92. l) how 2) usually 3) it
4) these 5) which
93. 1) farming 2) time 3) matter
4) offer 5) job
94. 1) also 2) has 3) not
4) have 5) were
95. 1) However 2) Instead 3) Despite
4) Again 5) Still
96. l) much 2) up 3) above
4) sharply 5) highly
97. l) when 2) since 3) while
4) as 5) after
98. 1) collected 2) informs 3)
calculate
4) analysed 5) show
99. 1) lowest 2) smaller 3)
decreased
4) important 5) not
100. 1). mostly 2) best 3) suitable
4) superior 5) main
Test – III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q.101-115): what should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
question?
101. 6.2 × 5.5 × 4.5 =?
1) 154.35 2) 145.54 3) 155.54 4) 135.45 5) None of these
102. 2 1 - 3 1 + 2 2 = ?
7 14 7
1) 6 5
14
2) 4 5
14
3) 2 3
14
4) 7 11
14
5) None of these
103. 1 5 6 =?
5 7 7
× ÷
1) 1
5
2) 3
5
3) 1
6
4) 2
7
5) None of these
104. 2615 – 4361 + 2881 =? × 20
1) 65.75 2) 58. 75 3)54.25 4) 64.25 5) None of these
105. 3.5 × (48 ÷ 1.5) = ?
1) 111 2) 112 3) 121 4) 122 5) None of these
106. 16.8% of 705 = ?
1) 116.88 2) 109.66 3) 118.44 4) 121.22 5) None of these
107. 13% of 190 + ? = 111
1) 68.7 2) 93.3 3) 24.7 4) 71.3 5) None of these
108. 628.88 – 410.25 + 153.05 = ?
1) 371.68 2) 56.58 3) 317.68 4) 65.58 5) None of these
109. (5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5)2 × (5 × 5 × 5 × 5)8 ÷ (5 × 5)3 = (25)?
1) 22 2) 13 3) 17 4) 19 5) None of these
110. ? - 12 = 1296
1) 2304 2) (48)2 3) 48 4) None of these
111. 8282 + 2828 = ? × 40
1) 277.75 2) 2257.75 3) 277.25 4) 257.25 5) None of these
112. 5% of 420 × ?% of 150 = 252
1) 12 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8 5) None of these
113. 25 ÷ 0.5 – 0.5 = ?
1) 25 2) 0 3) 36.5 4) 49.5 5) None of these
114. 5 × ? = 2862 ÷ 3
1) 4770 2) 195.4 3) 4077 4) 1706 5) None of these
115. 8080 ÷ 80 ÷ 8 = ?
1) 880 2) 12.625 30 808 4) 16.225 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120): What approximate value should come in place of question mark
(?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
116. 9125 + 90 + 9 = ?
1) 27 2) 3 3) 7 4) 21 5) 11
117. 6666.009 – 585.999 – 79.989 = ?
1) 5000 2) 5500 3) 6500 4) 4500 5) 6000
118. 11.003 × 10.998 + 111.01 = ?
1) 225 2) 195 3) 230 4) 270 5) 210
119. (14.5)2 = ?
1) 235 2) 190 3) 230 4) 270 5) 210
Directions (Q. 121-125): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
121. 2 26 286 ? 18018 90090 270270
1)3088 2)2667 3)3862 4)2574 5) None of these
122. 358 356 352 344 328 296 ?
1)232 2)247 3)225 4)255 5) None of these
123. 8 ? 30 105 472.5 2598.75 16891.875
1)24 2)10 3)12 4)16 5) None of these
124. 34 ? 21 85 110 326
1)7 2)10 3)12 4)14 5) None of these
125. 50000 10000 2500 500 125 ? 6.25
1) 75 2) 25 3) 50 4) 31.5 5) None of these
126. Six women and 10 children together take six days to complete a piece of work. How many
days will 10 children take to complete that piece of work if six women together can
complete the same piece of work in 10 days?
1)21 2)18 3)12 4)15 5) None of these
127. The ratio of the monthly incomes of Sneha, Tina and Akruti is 95:110:116. If Sneha's
annual income is Rs. 3,42,000. what is Akruti's annual income?
1) Rs. 3,96,900 2) Rs. 5,63,500 3) Rs. 4,17,600 4) Rs. 3,88,000
5) None of these
128. Meghna covered 3.36 km in four weeks by walking an equal distance each day. How many
metres does she walk each day?
1) 100m 2) 60m 3) 140m 4) 120m
5) None of these
129. The average of four consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D is 37. What is the product of
A and C?
1)1520 2)1368 3)1292 4)1224 5) None of these
130. The product of 5% of a positive number and 2% of the same number is 211.6. What is half
of that number?
1)230 2)460 3)920 4)115 5) None of these
131. Find the missing number if the average of all the1 eight numbers is 474.
533,128,429,225, ……., 305,601,804
1)767 2)781 3)776 4)758 5) None of these
132. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the
square is 56 cm and the length of the rectangle is 9 cm, what is the difference between the
breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
1) 7 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 11 cm 4) 5 cm 5) None of these
133. A truck covers a distance of 256 km at the speed of 32 kmh1. What is the average speed of
a car which travels a distance of 160 km more than the truck in the same time?
1)46 kmh-1 2) 52 kmh-1 3) 49 kmh-1 4) 64 kmh-1 5) None of these
134. Sushil scored 103 marks in Hindi, 111 marks in Science, 98 marks in Sanskrit, 110 marks
in Maths and 88 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if
Sushil scored 85 percent marks in all the subjects together, find the maximum marks of
each subject.
1) 110 2) 120 3) 115 4) 100 5) None of these
135. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a square field along its perimeter at the speed
of 39.6 kmh1 in 1 minute 20 seconds. What is the area of the field?
1) 52900 sqm 2)44100sqm 3)48400sqm 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
136. At present, Tarun is twice the age of Vishal and half the age of Tanvi. After four years,
Tarun will be 1.5 times Vishal's age and Tanvi will be 2.5 times of Vishal's age. What is
Tanvi's present age?
1)12 years 2) 8 years 3) 20 years 4) 16 years 5) None of these
137. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest accrued on an
amount at the end of three years at the rate of 15% is Rs. 453.6. What is the amount?
1)Rs. 4,500 2)Rs.6,400 3)?7,200 4) Rs. 8000 5) None of these
138. Pankaj, Sanjay and Pratima start running around a circular stadium and complete one round
in 12 sec, 8 sec and 15 sec respectively. After what time will they meet again at the starting
point?
1)3min30sec 2)One min 3)Three min 4) Two min 5) None of these
139. On Teachers' Day, 3200 sweets were to be equally distributed among a certain number of
children. But on that particular day 80 children remained absent and hence each child got
two sweets extra. How many children were originally supposed to be there?
1)320 2)500 3)540 4)400
5) Cannot be determined
140. What will come in place of both question marks (?) in the following question?
1.6
0.4
(?) = 24
96 (?)
1)58 2)-38 3)46 4)36 5)-48
141. The area of a circle is equal to the area of a rectangle with perimeter equal to 35 m and
breadth equal to 5.5 m. What is the area of the circle?
1)88 sqm 2)72sqm 3)66sqm 4) 54 sq m 5) None of these
142. In an examination, the maximum aggregate marks is 1020. In order to pass the exam a
student is required to obtain 663 marks out of the aggregate marks. Shreya obtained 612
marks. By what per cent did Shreya fail the exam?
1)5% 2)8% 3)7% 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
143. Sujit incurred a loss of 45 per cent on selling an article for Rs. 3,740. What was the cost
price of the article?
1) Rs. 5,725 2)Rs. 5,080 3) Rs.6,250 4)Rs. 6,400 5) None of these
144. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'VIRTUAL' be arranged among
themselves?
1)840 2)5040 3)2520 4)1680 5) None of these
145. A 480-metre-long train crosses a platform in 140 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
l)5m/s 2)7m/s 3)4.5m/s 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
146. The compound interest accrued in two years on a principal amount of 6,250 is 616. What is
the rate of interest pcpa?
1)22% 2)16% 3)18%' 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
147. The average height of 21 girls was recorded as 148 cm. When the teacher's height was
included, the average of their heights increased by 1 cm. What was the height of the
teacher?
1) 156cm 2) 168cm 3) 170cm 4). 162 cm 5) None of these
148. What would be the area of a circle whose diameter is 35 cm?
1)962.5 sq cm 2) 875.5 sq cm 3) 981.5 sq cm 4) 886.5 sq cm 5) None of these
149. Mehul sold an item for Rs. 5,625 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price should he have
sold the itein to gain a profit of 25%?
1)Rs. 9,375 2)Rs. 10,500 3)Rs. 8,250 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
150.
Out of the fractions 3 , 7 , 4 , 2 and 5 , what is thed difference between the largest and the
5 9 7 3 8
smallest frations?
1) 8
63
2) 19
63
3) 11
63
4) 17
63
5) None of these
Test – IV: General Awareness
(with special Reference to Banking Industry)
151. Which of the following organisations/agencies has specifically been set up to boost overall
rural development in India?
1) RBI 2) SIDBI 3)NABARD 4) SEBI 5)EXIM
152. Which of the following states has expressed its unhappiness over the agreement on sharing
of Teesta water between India and Bangladesh? (The agreement was not signed because of
the objection.)
l) Jharkhand 2) Assam 3) Manipur 4) Bihar
5) West Bengal
153. Banks in India are regulated under
1) Companies Act, 1956
2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
4) Special powers conferred on the RBI
5) None of these
154. Which of the following countries is a major producer of Jute?
1) Pakistan 2) Afghanistan 3) South Africa 4) Bangladesh
5) Sri Lanka
155. Compilation of data on industrial production in India is done by which of the following
agencies/organisations?
1) National Testing Lab
2) Reserve Bank of India
3) Census Commission of India
4) Planning Commission of India
5) Central Statistics Office
156. The President of India visited which of the following countries in July 2011 and held
discussions with Lee Myung-bak, the President of the country?
1) South Korea 2) Mongolia 3) China 4) North Korea 5) Thailand
157. India is providing financial help to which of the following countries for building a large
harbour there named as Kankasanthurai Harbour?
1) Nepal 2)Myanmar 3) Bangladesh 4) Sri Lanka 5) Vietnam
158. A savings bank account opened with a commercial bank with zero or very minimal balance
is known as
1) Savings Bank Ordinary Account
2) Student Savings Bank Account
3) No-Frill Account
4) Current Account
5) Call Deposit
159. What does the letter R denote in the abbreviation 'BR Act' which controls banking activities
in the country?
1) Reformation 2) Regulation 3) Reporting 4) Resolution
5) Ranking
160. 'Base Rate' in banks is
1) the rate of interest payable on demand deposits
2) the rate of interest payable on fixed deposits
3) the rate of interest charged by the RBI on long-term borrowings of public sector banks
4) the minimum lending rate decided by the RBI which shall be adopted by all public
sector banks
5) the minimum interest rate fixed by individual banks below which they cannot lend
funds, except cases like govts-sponsored scheme
161. Banking sector falls under which of the following sectors?
1) Agricultural Sector 2) Service Sector 3) Manufacturing Sector
4) Industrial Sector 5) Small Scale Sector
162. The Govt of India has recently added which of the following currencies for allowing Indian
companies to raise debts through external commercial borrowings?
1)Euro 2) Dinar 3) GB Pound 4) Yuan 5) Yen
163. A savings bank deposit account is one where
1) the deposits are made only once in a year
2) amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per the requirement of the customers
3) periodical fixed amounts are deposited monthwise and withdrawals are allowed after
a fixed period
4) the deposits are made once in every month
5) None of these
164. ASBA scheme is related to the purchase of
l)IPO 2) CP 3) CD 4)TCs 5) None of these
165. Who among the following is the ex officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
l)PratibhaPatil 2) Mohammad HamidAnsari 3)Manmohan Singh
4)MieraKumar 5) LK Advani
166. Which of the following states, at the instance of the Supreme Court of India, has decided to
conduct electronic auction of iron-ore stocks to be allotted to iron and steel producers?
1) Gujarat 2) Bihar 3) Madhya Pradesh 4)Uttar Pradesh 5)Karnataka
167. Mobile banking requires
1) account with a bank with mobile phone linked to interbank mobile payment service
2) account with mobile post office
3) account with bank along with mobile phone linked to international mobile payment
service
4) account with bank and mobile phone linked to inter- State mobile payment service
5) account with bank along with mobile phone linked to inter-district mobile payment
service
168. Saina Nehwal is a famous player associated with which of the following games?
1) Hockey 2) Badminton 3)Golf 4) Lawn Tennis
5) Table Tennis
169. Who among the following is the prime minister of Japan at present?
1) Yoshihiko Noda 2) Naoto Kan 3) Abe Shinza 4) Yasuo Fukuda
5) None of these
170. Central Drug Research Institute is located in which of the following cities in India?
1) Jamshedpur 2) New Delhi 3) Jaipur 4) Lucknow
5) Dhanbad
171. Which of the following books has been written by the classic Russian author Maxim
Gorky?
1) As You Like it 2) Lolita 3) The Mother 4) War and Peace
5)Alice in Wonderland
172. Summer Olympics of 2016 will be organised in
1) China 2) India 3) Brazil 4) Russia
5) South Africa
173. Which of the following terms is not used in the game of hockey?
1) Bully 2) Follow-on 3) Penalty corner 4) Centre-pass
5) Scoop
174. In a bank, which of the following are the usual types of accounts?
1) Savings accounts, Electricity accounts and Insurance premium accounts
2) Fixed deposits, Post office savings bank accounts and Current deposit accounts
3) Current accounts, Savings bank accounts and Term deposit accounts
4) Loan accounts, Savings bank accounts and Term deposit accounts
5) Current bill accounts and Term deposit accounts
175. When a bank dishonours a cheque it is called
1) settlement of the cheque.
2) withdrawing of the cheque.
3) nullifying of the cheque.
4) truncating of the cheque.
5) return of the unpaid cheque.
176. Which of the following banks has recently been merged with the State Bank of India?
1) State Bank of Hyderabad
2) State Bank of Indore
3) State Bank of Saurashtra
4) State Bank of Travancore
5) None of these
177. Salva Mayardit has taken over as the first President of
1) Republic of South Sudan 2) Vietnam 3)Myanmar
4)Libya 5) Iraq
178. The most powerful tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to control inflation is to
1) raise interest rates 2) reduce interest rates 3) raise currency supply
4) reduce currency supply 5) raise interest rates and reduce currency supply
179. 'Sub Prime Lending', which was the root cause for global meltdown in banks during 2008,
means
1) bank finance for non-productive activities
2) bank finance not properly disclosed in its Balance Sheet
3) bank finance in violation of the directives of the central bank
4) bank finance to fictitious entities
5) bank finance which do not qualify for the best market interest rates
180. Which of the following represents female literacy rate in India?
(As per provisional figures of census 2011)
1)60% 2)62% 3)65% 4)70% 5) None of these
181. Crossing of cheques makes them
1) invalid document
2) ineligible to endorse to a person other than the payee
3) remain the same in all respect; it is only a practice
4) eligible for payment irrespective of sufficient balance in the account
5) ineligible to get cash across the bank counter
182. NEFT and RTGS in banking terminology speak of
1) various deposit products
2) various loan products
3) electronic payment products within a bank
4) electronic fund transfer from bank to bank
5) cheque truncation process
183. The headquarters of the World Bank is located in
1) London 2) Paris 3) New York 4) Tokyo
5) Washington DC
184. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India for school children
only?
1) Kutir Jyoti 2) Kishor Jeevan 3) Aadhaar 4)SEWA 5) Mid Day Meal
185. Which of the following days is observed as World Ozone Day?
1) 10th Aug 2) 16th Oct 3) 16th Sept 4) 10th Dec 5) 19th January
186. Whiich of the following awards is given by the govt of Madhya Pradesh for excellence in
the field of classical music/dance etc?
1) Saraswati Samman
2) Kalidas Samman
3) Vyas Samman
4) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
5) Sahitya Akademi Award
187. The ownership of public sector banks rests
1) wholly with the Government of India
2) jointly with the Government of India and State Bank of India
3) wholly with the shareholders from public
4) jointly with the Government of India and Reserve Bank of India
5) jointly with the Government of India and the shareholders from the public
188. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with Cricket?
1) Azlan Shah Cup 2) Davis Cup 3) Nehru Gold Cup 4) Ranji Trophy
5) Wimbledon Trophy
189. Which of the following is the currency of South Korea?
1) Yen 2) Kyat 3) Won 4) Rupee
5) Ringit
190. Who among the following is the Railway Minister of India?
1) Sharad Pawar 2) Virbhadra Singh 3)AmbikaSoni 4) Dinesh Trivedi
5) None of these
191. Who among the following was a famous scientist and is known as the 'Father of India's
Nuclear Programme' ?
1) Dr Homi J Bhabha 2) Dr Satyendra Nath Bose 3) Dr Vikram Sarabhai
4) Dr Satish Dhawart 5)DrCVRaman
192. Which of the following awards was given to Dr Montek Singh Ahluwalia in 2011 by the
Govt of India?
1) Padma Vibhushan 2) Padmashree 3) Bharat Ratna
4) Man of the Year 5) Man of the Decade
193. Which of the following awards has been given to Dr Harish Hande and Nileema Mishra
recently?
1) Ramon Magsaysay 2) Booker Prize 3) Golden Pen Award
4) Mercy Ravi Award 5) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
194. Which of the following pacts/agreements will allow Afghanistan to sell its goods in India
without paying any tax?
1) S AFTA 2) Free Market Agreement 3)Most Favoured Nation Pact
4) Agreement for direct foreign investment
5) Agreement to help least developed countries
195. Non-Performing Assets are the assets which have stopped giving
1) losses to a bank
2) capital to a bank
3) income to a bank
4) income and expenses to a bank
5) expenses to a bank
196. Which of the following banks in India has maximum number of branches and ATMs in
India?
l) IDBI Bank 2) Bank of India 3) Punjab National Bank
4) ICICI Bank 5) State Bank of India
197. EFT stands for
1) Effective Funds Transfer
2) Efficient Funds Transfer
3) Easy Funds Transfer
4) Electronic Funds Transfer
5) Electric Funds Transfer
198. UNESCO is an organisation working in the field of
1) social welfare
2) protecting interest of prisoners of war
3) framing international laws
4) international collaboration through education, culture and science
5) protecting children's rights
199. If a cheque is postdated, the bank on which it is drawn
1) will not honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
2) has to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
3) has the option to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque or not
4) has to refer to RBI to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
5) has to refer to the court to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque "
200. Which of the following countries is a member of G 8?
l)Iran 2) Turkey 3) France 4) Brazil 5) China
Test – V: Computer Knowledge
201. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
1) They are a collection of data saved in a storage medium.
2) Every file has a filename.
3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the computer on which it was
created.
4) All files contain data.
5) None of these
202. Which of the following is not an example of a hardware?
1) Word 2) Printer 3) Monitor 4) Mouse 5) Scanner
203. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
1) Keyboard 2) Disk 3) ALU 4) Mouse 5) Printer
204. The result of a formula in a cell is called
1) label 2) value 3) range 4) displayed value 5) None of these
205. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
1) Hard disk 2) Flash drive 3) DVD 4)CD 5) Monitor
206. Choose the odd one out.
1) Microcomputer 2) Minicomputer 3) Supercomputer 4) Notebook computer
5) Digital computer
207. The ALU performs _operations.
1) logic 2)ASCH 3) algorithm-based 4)logarithm-based
5) final
208. ______is the part of the computer that does arithmetical calculations.
l)OS 2) ALU 3) CPU 4) Memory 5) printe
209. In a sequence of events that take place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is called
1) store cycle 2) execute cycle 3) fetch cycle 4) decode cycle
5) code cycle
210. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be
1) hardware 2) software 3) data 4) information 5) None of these
211. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?
1) Function 2) Line 3) Pie 4) Bar 5) None of these
212. To see the document before the printout is taken, use
1) Insert Table 2) Paste 3) Format Painter 4)Cut
5) Print Preview
213. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the
1) Notebook 2) Registers 3) Copy Pad 4) I/O devices
5) None of these
214. To move data from one part of the document to another, which of the following is used?
1) Cut and Paste 2) Copy and Paste 3) Cut and Delete 4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert
215. Which of the following is the another name for a preprogrammed formula in Excel?
1) Range 2) Graph 3) Function 4)Cell 5) None of these
216. To save a document for the first time, ______ option is used.
1) Save as 2) Save first 3) Save on 4) Copy 5) Paste
217. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?
1) Mouse 2) Printer 3) Joystick 4) Keyboard 5) Scanner
218. Which of the following are the two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000?
1) Autoshapes and Clip Art 2) Header and Footer
3) Drawing Objects and Pictures 4) Spelling and Grammar
5) Word Count
219. The user can use _______ commands to search for and correct words in a document.
1) Print and Print Preview 2) Header and Footer 3) Find and Replace
4) Spelling and Grammar 5) Copy and Paste
220. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?
1) HTML is very easy to use.
2) The document can be displayed by all word processors.
3) The document can be displayed by all programs.
4) The document can be displayed by all browsers.
5) None of these
6)
221. Which of the following functions is not performed by the CPU?
1) Graphical display of data
2) Arithmetic calculations
3) Managing memory
4) Managing input and output 5) None of these
222. Which of the following is the feature that keeps track of the right margin?
1) Find and replace 2) Wordwrap 3) Right justified 4) Left justified
5) Ragged right
223. Keyboard shortcuts are used to move the
1) I-beam 2) insertion point 3) scrollbar 4) mouse 5) None of these
224. To specify margins in Word, the user has to select Page Setup option from the menu.
l) Edit 2) Table 3) Autocorrect 4) File 5) Format
225. What is the package called which helps create, manipulate and analyse data arranged in
rows and columns?
1) Application package 2) Word processing package 3) Outlining package
4) Outline processors 5) Spreadsheet package
226. What does an electronic spreadsheet consists of ?
1) Rows 2) Columns 3) Cells 4) All the above 5) None of these
227. ROM is an example of which of the following?
1) Volatile memory 2) Cache memory 3)Non-volatile memory 4) Virtual memory
5) None of these
228. Which of the following options is used to display information such as title, page number of
the document?
1) Insert Table 2) Autocorrect 3) Thesaurus
4) Spelling and Grammar 5) Header and Footer
229. Which part of the computer can display the user's work?
1) Mouse 2) Keyboard 3) Disk Drive 4) Monitor
5) None of these
230. When a computer prints a report, this output is called
1) Program 2) Soft copy 3) Hard copy 4) Execution
5) None of these
231. The processor is a ___ chip plugged onto the motherboard in a computer system.
1) LSI 2) VLSI 3)ULSI 4)XLSI 5)WLSI
232. A register that keeps track of the next instruction to be executed is called a/an
1) Data Register 2) Instruction Register 3) Action Register 4) Program Counter
5) Accumulator
233. The microprocessor of a computer
1) does not understand machine language.
2) understands machine language and high-level languages.
3) understands only machine language.
4) understands only high-level languages.
5) understands only assembly language.
234. A set of choices on the screen is called a(n)
1) menu 2) reverse video 3) action plan 4) editor 5) template
235. What is the full form of PROM?
1) Programmable Read Only Memory
2) Progressive Read Only Memory
3) Periodic Read Only Memory
4) Perfect Read Only Memory
5) Program Read-Only Memory
236. Which of the following will be used if the (sender of an e- mail wants to bold, itlalicise etc
the text message?
1) Reach Signature 2) Reach Text 3) Reach Format 4) Plain Format
5) Plain Text
237. Which of the following terms is not related to Internet?
1) Link 2) Function key 3) Browser 4) Search engine 5) Hyperlink
238. Which of the following justifications align the text on both the sides—left and right—of the
margin?
1) Right 2) Justify 3) both Sides 4) Balanced 5) None of these
239. What is the full form of LSI?
1) Low Scale Internet 2) Large Scale Internet 3) Low Scale Integration
4) Large Scale integration 5) Local Scale Integration
240. To move the text from its original position to another position without deleting it is called
1) Scrolling 2) Searching 3) Moving 4) Copying 5) Halting
241. Which of the following is an active cell in Excel?
1) Current Cell 2) Formula 3) Range 4) Cell Address
5) None of these
242. What is included in an e-mail address?
1) Domain name followed by user's name
2) User's name followed by domain name
3) User's name followed by postal address
4) User's name followed by street address
5) None of these
243. What is called the secret code which prohibits entry into some programs?
1) Access code 2) Passport 3) Entry code 4) Password
5) Keyword
244. Which of the following types of menu shows further sub-choices?
1) Reverse 2) Template 3) Scrolled 4) Rapped 5) Pull Down
245. Which of the following operations is safe if an e-mail from an unknown sender is received?
1) Open it to know about the sender and answer it.
2) Delete it after opening it.
3) Delete it without opening it.
4) Open it and try to find who the sender is.
5) None of these
246. The other name of a motherboard is
1) Mouse 2) Computer Board 3) System Device 4) Central Board
5) System Board
247. Which of the following operations can any part of a document be seen on the screen?
1) Searching 2) Pasting 3) Scrolling 4) Editing
5) Copying
248. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute the results from Excel data?
l) Goto 2) Table 3) Chart. 4) Diagram
5) Formula and Function
249. Which type of storage is a hard disc?
1) Non-permanent 2) Volatile 3) Temporary 4) Non-volatile
5) None of these
250. Which of the following is not a software?
1) Excel 2) Printer-Driver 3) Operating System 4) Powerpoint
5) Mouse