10CS56 Formal Languages and Automata Theory JJ2014 VTU Question Paper

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Visvesvaraya Technological University - VTU
Question Paper
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION June / July 2014
(Regulation/Scheme 2010)
10CS56 - Formal Languages and Automata Theory
Fifth Semester - 5th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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10CS55 Computer Networks I JJ2014 VTU 5th Semester Question Paper

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Question Paper
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION Jan 2014
(Regulation 2010)
10CS55 Computer Networks - I
Fifth Semester - 5th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE

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10CS54 Database Management Systems JJ2014 VTU 5th Semester Question Paper

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Question Paper
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION June / July 2014
(Regulation/Scheme 2010)
10CS54 - Database Management Systems
Fifth Semester - 5th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE

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Top 10 benefits of walking

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Top 10 benefits of walking

And this weekend, if there’s just one thing you should start doing to get fitter, let that be walking. Here are 10 reasons why!

1. It’s great exercise. Walking at a steady pace for 30 to 45 minutes a day has been proven to be an excellent fat burner. Do this six times a week, along with following a healthy diet, and you will see a change in your weight. A good speed of walking is 6km/hour. In other words, it should take you 10 minutes to cover a kilometre.

2. It’s good for the heart. Walking is known to reduce blood pressure, improve blood circulation and all round cardiovascular functions

3. It increases stamina. Walking regularly at a good speed also improves muscle strength and endurance.

4. Promotes mental health. Walking is a great stress buster. And if you’re able to walk outdoors, there’s nothing like it. The combination of fresh air and exercise is an excellent mood booster and you’ll definitely find yourself feeling happier as well as healthier.



5. It’s good for your bones. Walking is a great way of strengthening your bones. Walking 30 minutes a day actually increases bone density and slows down bone loss in the legs. This low-impact exercise also targets your spine, legs and hips.

6. Prevents type 2 diabetes. Studies show that walking 150 minutes per week can reduce the risk of diabetes, which is why doctors highly recommend it to anyone who has a history of diabetes in their family.

7. Reduces risk of breast and colon cancer. Studies show that regular walking can reduce a person’s chances of getting breast and colon cancer.

8. Safer than running. Many experts believe that walking is actually better than running because it’s easier on your knees and joints. It leads to fewer injuries and if you’re just starting to exercise, it’s a good beginner workout.

9. Anyone can do it. Walking is truly a democratic exercise because anyone at ANY fitness level can do it. If you’re completely out of shape, start by walking 20 minutes a day and then slowly increase the time every week.

10. It’s free! Unlike most other forms of exercise, all walking requires is a pair of good walking shoes. Walk in the park; on the road; up the stairs; on a treadmill; in a long corridor, it really doesn’t matter. You don’t need expensive equipment or a partner to do this. So if you’re in the mood for a good, safe workout, just start walking!

10CS53 Operating Systems JJ2014 VTU 5th Semester Question Paper

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Visvesvaraya Technological University - VTU
Question Paper
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION June/July 2014
(Regulation/Scheme 2010)
10CS53 Operating Systems
Fifth Semester - 5th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering) 

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University Exam Question Papers and Materials

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University Question papers for various university in India like Anna University, Visvesvaraya Technological University - VTU, JNTU, Alagappa university. Here once you click the university names you will be able to download semester wise question paper for various regulation and years.

Please drop a comment if you want any papers which you can't find. Thanks

This website is been developed keeping in my the students and their future. Hope everyone shares the knowledge that would benefit others who are in need of that knowledge.

Knowledge is power.



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  • Question Paper - ( BE/B.Tech, ME/M.Tech, MBA, MCA, BSC, MSC )- Coming soon
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10CS52 System Software JJ2014 VTU 5th Semester Question Paper

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Question Paper
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION June/July 2014
(Regulation/Scheme 2010)
10CS52 System Software
Fifth Semester - 5th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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10IS51 Software Engineering JJ14 VTU 5th Semester Question Paper

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Question Paper
B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION June/July 2014
(Regulation/Scheme 2010)
10IS51 Software Engineering
Fifth Semester - 5th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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10CS65/10IS665 Computer Graphics and Visualization JJ2014 VTU 6th Semester Question Paper

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B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION JUNE /JULY 2014
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10CS65/10IS665 Computer Graphics and Visualization
Sixth Semester - 6th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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10CS64 Computer Networks - II JJ2014 VTU 6th Semester Question Paper

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B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION June/July 2014
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10CS64 Computer Networks - II
Sixth Semester - 6th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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10IS662/10CS63 Compiler Design JJ2014 VTU 6th Semester Question Paper

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10IS662/10CS63 Compiler Design
Sixth Semester - 6th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)


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10CS62 Unix System Programming JJ2014 VTU 6th Semester Question Paper

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10CS62 Unix System Programming
Sixth Semester - 6th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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10AL61 Management and Entrepreneurship Jan2014 VTU 6th Semester Question Paper

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10AL61 Management and Entrepreneurship
Sixth Semester - 6th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)


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10AL61 Management and Entrepreneurship JJ2014 VTU 6th Semester Question Paper

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10AL61 Management and Entrepreneurship
Sixth Semester - 6th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
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10CS755/10IS74 Data Warehousing and Data Mining Jan2014 VTU 7th Semester Question Paper

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B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(Regulation/Scheme 2010)
10CS755/10IS74 Data Warehousing and Data Mining
Seventh Semester - 7th
Computer Science Engineering - CSE
(Common to Information Science Engineering)

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DRDO Previous Year Question Papers

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DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organization) conducts the SET (Scientist Entry Test), Centre for Personnel Talent Management (CEPTAM), SRF and JRF examination every year to recruit engineers. Download previous year question papers and model papers can be download in pdf format below. Download DRDO SET papers of 2009, 2010, 2012, 2013, 2014.

DRDO entrance exam papers for Electronics / ECE, Computer science / CSE, Electrical - EEE, Mechanical / Mech ,Chemical Engineering, general Ability, aptitude, General Knowledge, Aero, Civil, Communication, Instrumentation, Metallurgy etc and Science subjects such as Chemistry, Physics and Maths/ Operations Research/ Statistics etc papers are given below for download. For more information leave a comment here.

DRDO recruitment Notification 2015 or Application form 2015, DRDO Exam Admit Card, DRDO Exam Syllabus 2015, DRDO Exam Eligibility 2015, DRDO Answer Keys 2014, DRDO Exam Result 2015, DRDO Exam Center 2015, How to crack DRDO Exam 2015, Preparation Tips DRDO exam 2015, DRDO Question Bank or DRDO Reference Books or DRDO Study Materials.drdo papers for ece, drdo exam paper 2014, drdo papers for computer science, drdo papers pdf, drdo papers for electronics and communication, drdo aptitude papers, drdo sample papers with answers, drdo written test papers


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Books:
There are various reference books which you can refer and download for the DRDO SET examination. You can also refer other PSU papers as it will given a idea about question. Please do prepare the subjects of you respective branches this will make your chances of clearing exam more. All the best. Below you can find the list of books which you can refer and the author. Please add your suggestion of books in comment box below.

For books details - Click Here 

Interview Questions:
Other papers:
Electronics - SET:
Electrical - SET: 
Computer Science - SET:
Mechanical - SET:
Chemical Engineering - SET:
    CEPTAM Papers:
    CEPTAM Computer Science Papers:





    DRDO Scientist Entrance Test (SET)

    Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is an agency of the Republic of India which does innovative development of technology required for the military purposes. DRDO SET all India entrance exam is conducted every year to recruit engineering or scientific graduates. This recruitment process is done by Recruitment and Assessment Centre (RAC) of DRDO.

    The exam is usually conducted on the first Sunday of September every year. DRDO employs only highly qualified and efficient scientists and technologists to Defence Research and Development Service (DRDS).


    Important Dates/Information for DRDO-SET exam

    DRDO-SET is conducted on all India basis on 1st Sunday of September every year in order to provide equal opportunity to all students from different educational institutions. Click here to see important dates for DRDO-SET exam this year.

    In cases, where very few vacancies are available, NO SET exam is conducted and the individuals are directly called for the interview. The advertisement generally appears during the month of April / May every year. 


    Streams/subjects for which DRDO-SET is conducted

    Based upon the organisation's requirements, DRDO SET is conducted in Engineering Subjects such as Aero, Civil, Electrical, Chemical, Computer, Electronics/Electronics & Communication, Instrumentation, Mechanical, Metallurgy etc and Science subjects such as Chemistry, Physics and Maths/ Operations Research/ Statistics etc.


    DRDO SET exam is conducted only for those subjects where vacancies are sizable in number.

    DRDO-SET results and schedule of interviews

    Details of eligible candidates, examination schedule, result of the exam, schedule of interviews and list of selected candidates are made available time to time on DRDO website 


    Structure and Pattern of DRDO SET
     

    DRDO SET exam is of three hours duration consisting of two sections ; Section‘A’& Section ‘B’

    Section 'A' has a total of 100 questions in the area where applicant has graduates like engineering stream or science subjects Section 'B' of 50 questions is on testing analytical and qualitative skills, and to gauge application understanding of current affairs and general awareness

    Based on the organisation's requirements, DRDO SET exam can be set to cover questions in conventional engineering streams like civil. Electrical and mechanical as well as new ones like aero, electronics&communication, metallurgy and science subjects such as Chemistry, Physics and Maths. Selection in DRDO Totally based on the score secured for entrance Exam. The short listed candidate are called for Personal Interview for final admission.

    Qualification Criteria for DRDO SET
     

    Any engineering graduate with B.Tech or MSc degree in Aero, Civil, Electrical, Chemical, Computer, Electronics/Electronics & Communication, Instrumentation, Mechanical, Metallurgy etc and Science subjects such as Chemistry, Physics and Maths/ Operations Research/ Statistics etc. The age limit is 28 years. For SC/ST students there is an age relaxation by 5 years and for OBC, there is a 3 year age relaxation.

    Application Procedure for DRDO SET
     

    Candidates are required to apply in the specified electronic application forms. DRDO issues notification for this exam in all major dailies. These application forms along with information booklet containing instructions for filling the application will be available at selected branches of SBI. For General/OBC candidates there is Rs 100 as application form cost and another Rs 200 as exam fee. However for SC/ST candidates exam fees is exempted and the application form with information brochure will be available on payment of Rs 100/-. For HH/OH candidates, there is no Application or Examination fee.

    Official Information on DRDO SET

    Address: Director, Recruitment and Assessment Centre, Defence Research and Development Organisation, Ministry of Defence, Lucknow Road, Timarpur, Delhi - 110 054
    Ph No; 91-011-23817833 , 91-011-23810314


    About CEPTAM:

    DRDO offers exciting and challenging career opportunities in very broad spectrum of subjects/ disciplines at its more than 50 laboratories/ establishments spread throughout the country. Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) conducts a Centre for Personnel Talent Management the Entry test (CEPTAM) for the recruitment of Senior Technical Assistant ‘B’ (STA’B’), Technician ‘A’ (Tech ‘A’), Assistant (Hindi), Admin & Allied Category Posts. The following are the Eligibility Details…

    Eligibility Criteria:

    I. a) Candidate must be a Citizen of India.

    b) Age Limit: Candidates age should be between 18 years and 28 years for STAT-B and Tech -A posts. between 18 t o 30 years for Asst Hindi Post, 18 to 27 years for Admin & Allied posts except for Asst Hindi post.

    c) Candidates must have completed the Essential Qualification Requirement (EQR) and other eligibility for the posts as on CLOSING DATE.

    d) Candidates must have read the required subject at least for 2 years in the course of B.Sc. programme.

    e) Please note that the candidates possessing higher qualification viz. M.Sc. or B.Tech, B.E. degree etc as on closing date, shall NOT be considered for the recruitment to the posts of Senior Technical Assistant ‘B’ or Technician ‘A’.

    f) Candidates must be in good mental & physical health and free from any physical deformity which may interfere in efficient discharge of duties. A candidate, after medical examination as may be prescribed by the competent authority, conducted before the offer of appointment is issued, if found unfit, will not be appointed.

    g) Candidates serving in Govt. / PSU/ Autonomous organizations/ armed forces including (departmental candidates) must apply through proper channel and may send an advance copy before closing date to be initially considered with intimation to their offices. They shall not be interviewed if they fail to produce “NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE” from the present employer at the time of interview.

    h) At any stage of selection process, if it is found on verification that an individual fails to fulfil any of the eligibility criteria, his/her candidature shall be treated as cancelled without notice and no representation in this regard shall be entertained under any circumstances.

     Reservation Benefits:

     a) Reservation benefits will be available to the candidates in accordance with the instructions/orders/circulars, issued by Govt. from time to time. IMPORTANT: Candidates who wish to be considered against reserved vacancies, seeking age and fee relaxation/concession, must support their claim by submitting applications alongwith their duly self attested copies of relevant certificates issued by Govt./notified Competent Authority, else their claim for any relaxation/concession etc will not be considered  and their application will be dealt with as that falling under General Category (UR).

    b) PWD: As per PWD reservation roster of DRDO, the reserved vacancies for PWD are mentioned against vacancies. PWD candidates applying against unreserved vacancies will be treated as general candidates.

    c) ESM: The person  who has served in any rank in regular Indian Army, Navy or Air Force and retired after earning Pension or any other relevant terms & conditions of Govt. of India d) MSP: As per rules of Government of India

    Age Relaxation: The candidate must be within prescribed age limit on the closing date. However, upper age limit is relaxable for SC, ST, OBC, PWD, MSP, ESM, GS, persons domiciled in Kashmir Division of  J&K state during the period from 01-01-1980 to 31-12-1989, Widows, Divorced women and Women judicially separated from husband but not remarried as per the rule prescribed by the Government of India. For relaxation of age limit and proforma for certificates, our website may be referred to.

    II. Educational Qualification:


    a) Senior Technical Assistant ‘B’(STA-’B'): Candidates should possess B.Sc Degree or Three years Diplome in Engineering in Agricultural Science, Automobile Engineering,  Biotechnology, Botany, Chemical Engineering,  Chemistry, Civil Engineering, Computer Science, Electrical & Electronics,  Electrical, Electronics & Communication or Electronics & Telecommunication, Electronics & Instrumentation, Electronics, Geology, Instrumentation, Library Science, Mathematics, Mechanical,  Mechatronics, Metallurgy,  Microbiology, Nursing, Pharmacy, Photography, Physics, Printing, Psychology, Radiography, Surveyor, Textile, Tool Die & Moulding, Veterinary Science Zoology from recognized University/ Institute.

    b) Technician’A’ (Tech’A'): Candidates should possess X Class or equivalent and certificate from ITI in  Automobile, Book Binder, Carpenter,  COPA, Cutting & Tailoring, Draughtsman (Mechanical),  DTP Operator, Electrician, Electronics, Electroplating, Fitter, FRP Processor, Grinder, Instrument Mechanic, Machinist, Machinist (CNC Operator),  Mechanic (Diesel), Medical Lab Technology, Mill Wright Mechanic, Motor Vehicle Mechanic, Painter, Photographer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Sheet Metal Worker, Turner, Welder trade.

    c) Admin & Allied Category Posts:

    i. Assistant Hindi: Master’s Degree of a recognized University in English/Hindi with Hindi and English as compulsory elective subjects at degree level OR Bachelor’s degree with Hindi and English as main subjects (which includes the term compulsory and elective) and two years Experience of translation from English to Hindi and vice versa .

    ii.Personal Assistant ‘A’: XII class pass or equivalent from Board or University. Accurate speed of 80 words per minute in shorthand and 40 words per minute in typing in English or 30 words per minute in Hindi or Accurate speed of 8000 key depressions per hour for data entry into computer.

    iii. Admin Assistant ‘A’ & Store Assistant ‘A’:  XII Class Pass Or equivalent from a recognized Board or University, Typing on computer at the speed of 30 words per minute in Hindi (30 words per minute corresponds to 9000 KDPH on an average of 5 key depressions for each word.) or Typing on computer at the speed of 35 word per minute in English (35 words per minute corresponds to 10500 KDPH on an average of 5 key depressions for each word.)

    iv. Security Assistant ‘A’: XII class pass Or equivalent from a recognized Board or University or equivalent certificate awarded by Armed Forces in the case of Ex-Serviceman, Physical fitness and capability to undertake strenuous duties.

    v. Civilian Driver ‘A’: X class pass Or equivalent qualification by the Central/   State  Governments  and possessing  a valid driving  license for Two/ Three wheelers and light and heavy vehicles (both) and  One year experience of driving after acquiring the license (HMV).

    vi. Fire Engine Driver ‘A’: X class  pass  Or  equivalent  qualification  recognized by  the Central/  State Governments,  valid driving  license for Two/ Three wheelers and light and heavy vehicles (both), Knowledge of traffic regulations, (iv) Physical  fitness and capability for strenuous duties.

    vii. Fire men: X  class  pass  certificate  recognized  by Central/  State Governments,  Physical fitness  and capability to perform strenuous duties.


    DRDO SET Question Paper for Chemical Engineering - 2008

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    Section - A

    1.  Nitric acid is manufactured by :

    (a) Le Blanc process

    (b) Haber process

    (c) Ostwald process

    (d) Solvay process

    2.  In the Kraft process for paper manufacture, the reagents used in the digestor are :

    (a) sodium hydroxide, sodium sulfide and sodium carbonate

    (b) magnesium bisulfite and sulfur dioxide in acid medium

    (c) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate

    (d) sodium sulfite, sodium bisulfite and sulfur dioxide

    3.  In the 'Contact Process' for the manufacture of sulfuric acid, the catalyst used is:

    (a) Fe2O3

    (b) V2O5

    (c) Pt-Rh

    (d) AlCl3

    4.  Match the following

    1. Hydrogen from light petroleum stock

    2. High-octance gasoline from naphtha

    3. Gasoline from gas oil

    4. Petroleum coke from residue

    P. Pyrolysis

    Q. Catalytic cracking

    R. Platforming

    S. Steam-reforming

    (a) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S

    (b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S

    (c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P

    (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

    5.  Among the four fuels listed below, the calorific value is the highest for :

    (a) coal

    (b) kerosene

    (c) natural gas

    (d) furnace oil

    6.  Match the following

    1. Cane sugar                     P. Membrane cell

    2. Polyvinyl chloride            Q. Urea

    3. Caustic soda                  R. Black-strap molasses

    4. Ammonia                       S. Emulsion polymerization

    (a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

    (b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S

    (c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P

    (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P

    7.  The correct relation between nominal interest rate (r) and effective interest rate (ieff) is:

    (a) ieff  = er + 1

    (b) ieff  = er - 1

    (c) ieff  = er

    (d) ieff  = r

    8.  In Guthrie's cost correlation, cost of a heat exchanger is expressed as a function of :

    (a) LMTD

    (b) overall heat transfer coefficient

    (c) heat duty

    (d) surface are

    9.  A mixture of components A,B,C and D with relative volatilities in the order A B C D is to be separated by a series of distillation columns. The number of possible sequences for this operation is

    (a) 14

    (b) 20

    (c) 10

    (d) 5

    10.  The cost component which is not considered in the estimation of the payout time (i.e. payback period) of a process is:

    (a) startup cost

    (b) fixed capital

    (c) depreciation

    (d) working capital

    11.  A heat exchanger network without any loop has 4 streams above the pinch and 3 streams below the pinch. One utility is available above the pinch and another is available below the pinch. The total number of heat exchangers for this network is :

    (a) 10

    (b) 8

    (c) 6

    (d) 7

    12.  The measure of profitability of the process that does not take into account time value of money is :

    (a) discounted cash flow rate of return

    (b) capital charge factor

    (c) payback period

    (d) return on investment

    13.  The response of a system,  G(s) = 1/tS + 1 for a step change of magnitude A is equal to :

    (a) 1 - et/t

    (b) A (1 - et/t)

    (c) A (1 - e-t/t)

    (d) 1 - e-t/t

    14.  The Laplace transform of the input function, u (t), given in Fig. Q 14 is:

    (a) 1/5s2 (1 - e-3S)

    (b) 1/5s2 (1 + e-3S)

    (c) 3/5s2 (1 - e-3S)

    (d) 3/5s2 (1 + e-3S)

    15.  A system with transfer function G (s) = S/S + 1 is subjected to a sinusoidal input u(t) = sin wt. At steady state, the phase angles of the output relative to the input at w = 0 and w = ¥ will be, respectively :

    (a) 0 and - p/2

    (b) p/2 and 0

    (c) -p/2 and 0

    (d) 0 and p/2

    16.  For the response of an under damped second order process:

    (a) overshoot = (decayratio)0.5

    (b) overshoot = decayratio

    (c) overshoot = (decayratio)2

    (d) overshoot = (decayratio)-1

    17.  The connecting line of the type denotes:

    (a) electric signal

    (b) capillary tubing

    (c) software link

    (d) pneumatic signal

    18.  Match the following :

    1. Hot wire anemometer         P. Temperature measurement

    2. DP cell                             Q. Flow measurement

    3. Pyrometer                         R. Pressure measurement

    (a) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R

    (b) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P

    (c) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q

    (d) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q

    19. When two first order processes are connected in a non-interacting manner the combined system will be :

    (a) second order under damped

    (b) second order over damped

    (c) second order critically damped

    (d) first order

    20.  The best method for controlling the temperature of a catalytic exothermic reaction taking place in a tubular reactor is:

    (a) cascade control

    (b) override control

    (c) split-range control

    (d) auctioneering control

    21.  U-tube manometer is a :

    (a) zero order process

    (b) first order process

    (c) second order process

    (d) third order process

    22.  The final value of f (s) = S/S2 + 3S + 2 is given by :

    (a) 1

    (b) 0

    (c) 2

    (d) 3

    23.  The equation (s) representing the linear system (s) is (are) : -

    (I)    d2y/dt2 + 8 dy/dt + y = u(t)

    (II)   (y + 7) dy/dt = 8 u(t)

    (III)  3 d2y/dt2 + 2 dy/dt +3y = u2(t)
    (a) I only

    (b) I and II

    (c) II only

    (d) III only

    24.  Match the transfer functions with the responses to a unit step input, shown in the Fig.

    (I)     G (s) = -3 (-4S + 1)/4s2 + 4s + 1

    (II)    G (s) = -2e-15s/ 10s + 1

    (III)   G (s) = -5/-15s + 1

    (IV)   G (s) = -0.2/s

    (V)    G (s) = 5s + 3/4s + 1


    (a) I-C, II-E, III-D, IV-A, V-B

    (b) I-E, II-C, III-A, IV-D, V-B

    (c) I-E, II-A, III-C, IV-B, V-D

    (d) I-A, II-C, III-E, IV-B, V-D

    Statements for linked Answer Question 25 and 26:

    Following is the Bode diagram of a process.

    25.  The ultimate gain of the process is :

    (a) 8.33

    (b) 4.99

    (c) 12.55

    (d) 1.21

    26.  The ultimate period of sustained cycling of the process is :

    (a) 0.01 min/cycle

    (b) 0.37 min/cycle

    (c) 0.89 min/cycle

    (d) 0.53 min/cycle

    27.  An elementary reaction is expressed as : A + B → C. The unit of the rate constant for this reaction is :

    (a) 1/s

    (b) mol/(m3.s)

    (c) m3/(mol - s)

    (d) m3 - s/mol

    28.  The RTD function E(t) for a CSTR with average residence time, t is :

    (a) exp(-t/t)/t

    (b) d(t - t)

    (c) t/t

    (d) exp(-t/t)

    29.  The flow-pattern inside a reactor resembles plug flow when the dispersion number is :

    (a) 1

    (b) <0 .01="" br="">
    (c) 10 - 100

    (d) >100

    30.  Consider the elementary liquid-phase reaction A→ B → C carried out in a CSTR under steady state. The rate equations for A and B are: -rA = 100 CA and rB = 100 CA - CB and /(m3.s), respectively. If there is no product in the feed, the value of residence time corresponding to the maximum concentration of B is :

    (a) 0.1 s

    (b) 10 s

    (c) 100 s

    (d) 0.01 s

    31.  Consider the liquid-phase reactions shown in the schematic below carried out in a flow reactor at steady state.

    Keeping the reaction-system isothermal, the yield of the desired product can be maximized by maintaining :

    (a) low concentration of A and high concentration of B

    (b) high concentration of A and high concentration of B

    (c) low concentration of A and low concentration of B

    (d) high concentration of A and low concentration of B

    32.  The first-order gas-phase reaction : A → 3R is carried out in a variable-volume CSTR at constant temperature and pressure. If the conversion is 60%, the Damkohler number is :

    (a) 2.5

    (b) 1.8

    (c) 3.3

    (d) 4.6

    33. The Hatta number is a measure of :

    (a) rate of reaction/rate of mass transfer

    (b) rate of bulk reaction/rate of surface reaction

    (c) rate of adsorption/rate of desorption

    (d) rate of reaction at the room temperature/rate of reaction at the reaction temperature

    34.  Pores of a catalyst pellet can be represented as shown in Fig

    The porosity of the catalyst pellet is 0.5 and constriction factor is 0.8. If the Knudsen diffusivity of a gas is 1.4 x 10-6 m2/s, its effective diffusivity is :

    (a) 4 x 10-7 m2/sss

    (b) 1.3 x 10-8 m2/s

    (c) 2 x 10-7 m2/s

    (d) 1.4 x 10-6 m2/s

    35.  Thiele modulus is a measure of :

    (a) rate of diffusion through the catalyst pellet/surface reaction rate

    (b) bulk diffusivity/Knudsen diffusivity

    (c) surface rection rate/rate of diffusion through the catalyst pellet

    (d) actual overall rate of rection/rate of reaction that would result if the entire interior surface were exposed to the external pellet surface concentration at the surface temperature

    36.  An elementary liquid-phase reaction : A → B is to carried out in a PFR operated under steady state at constant temperature and pressure. The flow rate of A is 1 mol/s, the concentration of A in the feed is 1 mol/m3 and the value of the rate constant is 1 s-1. The volume of the reactor required for 90% conversion of A is :

    (a) 3.7 m3

    (b) 2.3 m3

    (c) 4.6 m3

    (d) 12.6 m3

    37.  A liquid-phase reaction is being carried out in a  constant-volume batch reactor. The rate constant is 0.01 s-1. The initial concentration of the reactant fed to the reactor is 1 mol/m3. The concentration of the reactant after 100 s is :

    (a) 1/e mol/m3

    (b) 2.3 mol/m3

    (c) e mol/m3

    (d) 0.1 mol/m3

    38.  A reaction is being carried out in a set of two CSTRs in series under steady state. The reaction rate constant is 0.1 s-1 and the residence time is 10s in each reactor. Assuming no change in volume, the conversion of the reactant after the second reactor is:

    (a) 50%

    (b) 25%

    (c) 100%

    (d) 75%

    Statement for linked answer question 39 and 40 :  A liquid feed containing 40 mol% A and 60 mol%, B is distilled in a column. The distillate composition is 90 mol% A and 10 mol% B. The average heat capacity of the feed is 100 kJ/(kmol-K). The average latent heat of feed is 30 MJ/(kmol-K). The inlet temperature and bubble point of the feed are 350 K and 500 K respectively. The point of intersection of the q-line with the equilibrium curve is (0.5,0.7). Assume Mc-Cabe-Thiele method of distillation to be applicable for this operation.

    39.  The q-factor this operation is

    (a) 3

    (b) 2.5

    (c) 1.5

    (d) 1

    40.  The minimum reflux ratio for this operation is :

    (a) 2

    (b) 1

    (c) 1.5

    (d) 2.5

    Statement for linked answer question 41 mid 42 :  An organic vapor in exhaust air from a process is recovered by adsorption onto activated carbon. The diameter of the absorbent bed is 0.15 m and the height is 0.6 m. The time equivalent of stoichiometric bed capacity is 4.8 x 104s and the time equivalent of bed capacity up to breakpoint is 2.4 x 104s.

    41.  The length of unused bed for this operation is :

    (a) 0.1 m

    (b) 0.3 m

    (c) 0.4 m

    (d) 0.2 m

    42.  For a new adsorption column to be installed for the same question, the desired break-point time is 3.6 x 104s. The total length of the new column should be :

    (a) 0.8 m

    (b) 1 m

    (c) 0.75 m

    (d) 1.5 m

    Statement for linked answer question 43 mid 44 :  Consider a mixture of vapor (A) and dry gas (B) at 298 K. The molecular weights of A and B are 20 kg/mol and 50 kg/mol respectively. The total pressure of the system is 100 kPa. Vapor pressure of A at 298 K is 25 kPa.

    43.  If the partial pressure of A is 10 kPa, the humidity of the mixture is approximately equal to :

    (a) 0.004 kg A/kg dry B

    (b) 0.1 kg A/kg dry B

    (c) 0.04 kg A/kg dry B

    (d) 0.002 kg A/kg dry B

    44.  If the humidity of the mixture of  A and B is 0.01 kg A/kg dry B, the mole fraction of A in the gas phase is approximately equal to :

    (a) 0.015

    (b) 0.025

    (c) 0.01

    (d) 0.005

    45.  For wet bulb temperature to be equal to adiabatic saturation temperature, Lewis number should be equal to

    (a) ¥

    (b) 0

    (c) 10

    (d) 1

    Statement for linked answer question 46 mid 47 :  A gas stream containing component A at 1 mol% is scrubbed with fresh water in a counter current packed tower. It is proposed to remove 90% of A by absorption in water. The gas flow rate is 20 mol/(m2.s) and the liquid flow rate is 100 mol/(m2.s). The equilibrium relationship in terms of mole fraction is given by

    y* = 2 x

    The mass transfer coefficients are :

    kxa = 50mol/(m3.s)

    kxa = 25mol/(m3.s)

    46.  The overall gas-phase NTU based on arithmetic mean driving force is approximately equal to :

    (a) 5

    (b) 2.5

    (c) 7.5

    (d) 10

    47.  The overall gas-phase HTU based on arithmetic mean driving force is approximately equal to :

    (a) 2.6 m

    (b) 2 m

    (c) 1.6 m

    (d) 3 m

    48.  The condition for which HETP of a packed tower is equal to overall gas phase HTU is :

    (a) equilibrium curve is parabolic and lies below the operating line

    (b) equilibrium curve is parabolic and lies above the operating line

    (c) equilibrium and operating lines are orthogonal

    (d) equilibrium and operating lines are straight and parallel

    49. The condition under which the operating lines for both stripping and rectifying sections coincide with the diagonal in McCabe- Thiele method is :

    (a) 1.2 times minimum reflux

    (b) minimum reflux

    (c) total reflux

    (d) no reflux

    50. If the moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X, then the moisture content on wet basis is :

    (a) X/(I - X)

    (b) X/(I + X)

    (c) (1 +  X)/X

    (d) (1 -  X)/X

                                                         

    Section - B

    51.  Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium pressure equal to that of pure liquid at the same temperature is called:

    (a) bound moisture

    (b) free moisture

    (c) critical moisture

    (d) unbound moisture

    Statement for linked answer question ------  and ------ :  An antibiotic is extracted from a dilute aqueous solution using a solvent. The volume ratio of solvent to aqueous phase is 0.06. The distribution coefficient of the antibiotic is 50. No appreciable change in volume of aqueous phase as well as solvent is observed with transfer of solute.

    52.  The percentage recovery of the antibiotic is an ideal single stage with the fresh solvent is :

    (a) 75%

    (b) 40%

    (c) 50%

    (d) 80%

    53.  Approximate percentage recovery of the antibiotic in two ideal stages with the fresh solvent added to both stages with the same volume ratio is:

    (a) 80%

    (b) 99%

    (c) 75%

    (d) 94%

    54.  The steady state temperature distribution in a plane wall is found to be T = 400 + 2000x -10000x2, T is in K and x is in m measured from one side of the wall. The maximum temperature is found at x equal to :

    (a) 0

    (b) 1

    (c) 0.25

    (d) 0.5

    55.  For the composite wall as shown in Fig.

    R1, R2, R3 and R4 are the resistance of the different sections. The total resistance for one-dimensional heat flow along x-direction is :

    (a) R1 + R2 + R3 + R4

    (b) R1R2 + R2R3 + R1R3 + R2R4 + R3R4 / R1 + R2 + R3 + R4

    (c) R1R2R3 + R2R3R4 + R2 + R3 / R2R3

    (d) R1R2+ R2R3 + R1R3 + R2R4 + R3R4 / R2 + R3

    56.  Lumped-capacity analysis for heat conduction in a solid wall is applicable when the conductive resistance is :

    (a) very low compared to convective resistance

    (b) very high compared to convective resistance

    (c) comparable with convective resistance

    (d) equal to convective resistance

    57.  Fins do not help much for heat transfer into a boiling liquid because :

    (a) boiling liquid is at constant temperature and no heat transfer is possible

    (b) boiling liquid has very low convective heat transfer coefficient

    (c) boiling liquid has very high convective heat transfer coefficient

    (d) it is difficult to put fins in a boiling liquid

    58.  Heat transfer is taking place from a solid flat surface to a fluid flowing in laminar flow dh and dT are the hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer thicknesses respectively. The correct statement is :

    (a) dh and dT are always same

    (b) dh or dT are independent of the momentum or thermal diffusivity respectively

    (c) dh > dT, if momentum diffusivity is greater than thermal diffusivity

    (d) dh > dT, if momentum diffusivity is lower than thermal diffusivity

    59.  Rayleigh number is associated with :

    (a) radiation

    (b) conduction

    (c) forced convection

    (d) free convection

    60.  One-dimensional heat transfer through a long slab (without any heat generation or depletion inside) will never reach steady state, if

    (a) input heat flux in one boundary is same as the output heat flux in the other boundary

    (b) input heat flux in one boundary is more than the output heat flux in the other boundary

    (c) temperatures of the two boundaries are maintained at constant values

    (d) all of a, b and c

    61.  A hemisphere of diameter, D is enclosed with a flat surface of diameter, D. The flat surface is designated as surface 1 and the hemisphere is designated as surface 1 and the hemisphere is designated as surface 2. The view factor matrix for the enclosure is :

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

    62.  The INCORRECT statement is :

    (a) Both Nusselt and Biot numbers indicate ratio of conductive resistance to convective resistance

    (b) Both Nusselt and BIot numbers are dimensionless groups

    (c) Nusselt number uses thermal conductivity of fluid but Biot number uses thermal conductivity of solid

    (d) Both Nusselt and Biot numbers use thermal conductivity of soiled

    63.  The statement "boiling point of a given aqueous solution is laminar function of the boiling point of pure water at the same pressure" is known as

    (a) Duhring's rule

    (b) Raoult's law

    (c) Henry's law

    (d) Colburn analogy.

    64.  The statement for a single-effect evaporator "1.5 kg steam is consumed per hour" indicates its:

    (a) capacity

    (b) economy

    (c) capacity/economy

    (d) economy/capacity

    65.  Tubes of 80 mm2 cross-sectional area and 29 mm perimeter are arranged in square pitch inside a shell and tube heat exchanger. The tube pitch is 15 mm. The hydraulic diameter for heat transfer at the shell side is :

    (a) 29 mm

    (b) 40 mm

    (c) 15 mm

    (d) 20 mm

    Statement for linked answer question 66  and 67 :  Lubricant oil [specific heat = 2.1 kJ/(kg.K)] with a flow rate of 2 kg/s at 353 K needs to be cooled to 323 K. Water [specific heat = 4.2 kJ/(kg.K)] is available at 303 K and must not be heated above 313 K. The flow occurs in co-current fashion. The overall heat transfer coefficient is 420 W/(m2.K). The area of heat transfer is 12 m2.

    66.  The effectiveness of the heat exchanger is :

    (a) 0.8

    (b) 0

    (c) 0.6

    (d) 0.75

    67.  The number of transfer units of the heat exchanger is approximately equal to :

    (a) 1.2

    (b) 1.5

    (c) 1.7

    (d) 1.0

    68.  For flow across a tube bundle in a baffled shell and tube heat exchanger, the pressure drop is :

    (a) maximum for square pitch

    (b) maximum for triangular pitch

    (c) maximum for rotated square pitch

    (d) independent of pitch arrangement

    69.  For a constant-pressure filtration process with negligible filter cloth resistance, the volume of filtrate collected per unit area (V/A) varies with corresponding filtration time q through the relationship : 

    (a) µ q

    (b) µ √q

    (c) µ q2

    (d) µ q-1

    70.  The following conditions are applicable for a centrifuge :

    Load inside the centrifuge : 10 kg

    Diameter of the basket : 50 cm

    Rotational speed : 10000 Hz

    The force developed by centrifugal action inside the centrifuge is (assume p2= 10)

    (a) 10000 N

    (b) 10000 kN

    (c) 10000 MN

    (d) 10000 GN

    71. To apply Stokes's law for free terminal settling of some solid particles (special gravity = 2.8) in water, the maximum diameter of the particles will be approximately equal to :

    (a) 45 µm

    (b) 4.5 µm

    (c) 450 µm

    (d) 0.45 µm

    72.  Two impellers with diameters 8 cm and 1 cm have the same power number. The first one rotates with a speed of 10 Hz. The speed of the second impeller is :

    (a) 3.2 Hz

    (b) 32 Hz

    (c) 320 Hz

    (d) 3200 Hz

    73.  Limestone of average diameter 25 mm is being crushed to particles of size 10 mm. If the feed size of the limestone is increased to 40 mm, according to the Rittinger's law the percentage increase in power requirement to get the same-sized product will be :

    (a) 10%

    (b) 25%

    (c) 40%

    (d) 100%

    74.  Match the following :

    1. Water                          P. Dilatant fluid

    2. Toothpaste                  Q. Newtonian fluid

    3. Polymer solution          R. Bingham plastic fluid

    4. Starch suspension        S. Pseudoplastic fluid

    (a) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-B

    (b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S

    (c) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

    (d) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R

    75.

      Match the following :

    1. P. Euler equation

    2. Q. Navier-Stokes equation

    3. R. Continuity equation

    4. S. Bernoulli's equation.

    (a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R

    (b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

    (c) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R

    (d) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S

    76.  Match the following :

    1. Rotameter                   P. Direct measurement of mass flow rate

    2. Notch tube                  Q. Full-bore meter

    3. Orifice meter               R. Measurement of local velocity

    4. Coriolis meter              S. Variable area meter

    (a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R

    (b) 1-R, 2-P, 3-P, 4-Q

    (c) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R

    (d) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P

    77.  For one dimensional flow (z-direction) of a fluid through a pipe, match the following :

    1. Steady flow                    P.  V ≠ f(z)

    2. Fully developed flow       Q.  V ≠ f(r)

    3. Uniform flow                  R.  V ≠ f(t)

    4. Irrotational flow             S.  V x V = 0

    (a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R

    (b) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S

    (c) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R

    (d) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P

    78.  For the velocity profile of a fluid in Cartesian coordinate.

    V = xy2i - xy3j + xyk,   the flow is :

    (a) steady and incompressible

    (b) unsteady and incompressible

    (c) steady and compressible

    (d) unsteady and compressible

    79.  Bernoulli's equation is applicable when the flow is :

    (a) streamline, unsteady, frictionless and incompressible

    (b) streamline, steady, friction and incompressible

    (c) streamline, steady, frictionless and compressible

    (d) streamline, steady, frictionless and incompressible

    80.  A pipeline of inside diameter 0.1 m and length 10 m is fitted with two p/2 rad elbows, one p/4 rad elbow and three gate valves. Equivalent lengths of one p/2 rad elbow, one p/4 rad elbow and one gate valves are 30, 16 and 8 respectively. The ratio of minor loss to major loss is :

    (a) 0.1

    (b) 1

    (c) 10

    (d) 0

    81.  Water flows through an annulus of two concentric pipes at a velocity of 0.1 m/s. The outside diameter of the inner pipe is 0.1 m and the inside diameter of the outer pipe is 0.2m. Viscosity of water is 1 mPa-s. The Reynolds number for the flow is :

    (a) 2 x 104

    (b) 2 x 103

    (c) 1 x 104

    (d) 1 x 103

    82.  A cylindrical pump (NPSH requirement = 5 m) draws a non-volatile liquid from reservoir at a pressure of 196 kPa. If the frictional loss of head in the suction line is well within 1m, the minimum lift is :

    (a) 10.4 m

    (b) 15 m

    (c) 20 m

    (d) 14 m

    83.  A cylindrical column has inside volume of 0.02 m3 and 50% of that volume is filled with a packing material of volume 0.006 m3. If the Superficial velocity through the column is 0.1 m/s, the interstitial velocity is :

    (a) 0.1 m/s

    (b) 0.25 m/s

    (c) 4 m/s

    (d) 10 m/s

    84.  In a particulate fluidization experiment, when the velocity is increased by 10 times. The length of the bed of void fraction 0.4 is found to be doubled. The new void fraction is :

    (a) 0.7

    (b) 0.6

    (c) 0.5

    (d) 0.8

    85.  The statement that describes the 3rd law of thermodynamics is :

    (a) "All gases having same reduced property behave similarly"

    (b) "Heat transfer from low temperature to high temperature source is not possible without external work"

    (c) "Crystalline solids have zero heat capacity at absolute zero temperature"

    (d) "Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but can be transformed from one form to another"

    86.  A gas cylinder contains 1.4 kg of liquid nitrogen. This gas is released and brought to 273 K and atmospheric pressure. The volume occupied by the gas assuming ideal behavior is :

    (a) 1.12 m3

    (b) 2 m3

    (c) 1 m3

    (d) 2.24 m3

    87.  Consider the chemical reaction 4NH (g) + 5O2 (g) = 4NO2(g) + 6H2O (g) with ∆ H = -227 kJ/kmol. The equilibrium yield of NO2 will be maximum at :

    (a) high pressure and high temperature

    (b) low pressure and high temperature

    (c) high pressure and low temperature

    (d) low pressure and low temperature

    88.  The condition for a gas to show maximum deviation from ideal behavior is :

    (a) high pressure and low temperature

    (b) low pressure and high temperature

    (c) high pressure and high temperature

    (d) low pressure and low temperature

    89.  A chemical system comprises of 4 components and 2 phases. The degrees of freedom for the system are :

    (a) 2

    (b) 4

    (c) 6

    (d) 0

    90.  A liquid mixture containing 60 mol% A and  40 mol% B follows Raoult's  law.  At 323 K the vapor pressures of pure A and B are 80 kPa and 40 kPa respectively. The equilibrium vapor phase mole fraction of component A at the bubble point, 323 K is :

    (a) 0.8

    (b) 0.5

    (c) 0.9

    (d) 0.75

    91.  The equation which does not follow Maxwell relation is:

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

    92.  The correct definition of entropy of a system with constant composition is ;

    (a) S =

    (b) S =

    (c) S =

    (d) S =

    93.  The dimension of viscosity is :

    (a) MLT-1

    (b) MLT-1 T-1

    (c) MLT-2 T-1

    (d) MLT-1 T-2

    94.  A gas containing 1 mole % ethane is in contact with water at 293 K and 2 x 103 kPa.  If the Henry's law constant is 2.5 x 106 kPa/mol fraction, the mole fraction of dissolved ethane in water is :

    (a) 2 x 10-4

    (b) 8 x 10-2

    (c) 1 x 10-3

    (d) 8 x 10-6

    95.  The internal energy of reaction for the reaction     C2H4 (g) + 2Cl2 (g) → C2HCl3 (1) + H2(g) + HCl (g) is - 418 kJ/mol at 300 K. The heat of reaction is :

    (a) -420.5 kJ/mol

    (b) -418 kJ/mol

    (c) -416 kJ/mol

    (d) -150 kJ/mol

    96.  The heats of oxidation of magnesium and iron according to the following reactions are :

    Mg + O2 → MgO, ∆ H = - 610 kJ

    2Fe + O2 → Fe2O3, ∆ H = - 810 kJ

    The heat of the reaction of :  3Mg + Fe2O3 → 3MgO + 2Fe is

    (a) 2680 kJ

    (b) - 830 kJ

    (c) 1680 kJ

    (d) - 1020 kJ

    97.  A droplet of water at 298 K is suddenly introduced into an infinite gas medium at 373 K saturated with water vapor. At steady state :

    (a) the drop attains wet bulb temperature and vanishes

    (b) the drop-row in size and attains the temperature of 373 K.

    (c) the drop reduces in size and attains the temperature of 373 K.

    (d) the size of the drop remains unaltered and it attains the temperature of 373 K.

    98.  The coefficient of volumetric expansion for an ideal gas at a pressure, P and temperature, T is :

    (a) 1/T

    (b) T

    (c) P

    (d) 1/T2

    99.  The proximate analysis of coal involves the determination of :

    (a) net calorific value

    (b) caking index

    (c) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur and oxygen

    (d) volatile matter, fixed carbon, ash and moisture.

    100.  The Clausius-Clapeyron equation describes the variation of :

    (a) heat capacity with temperature

    (b) density with pressure

    (c) vapor pressure with temperature

    (d) surface tension with temperature